Nursing Elites

1. When preparing to administer a medication through a nasogastric (NG) tube, what is the first action the nurse should take?

• A. Check the placement of the NG tube
• B. Flush the tube with saline
• C. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position
• D. Administer the medication slowly

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action when preparing to administer a medication through a nasogastric (NG) tube is to check the placement of the NG tube. This step is essential to ensure that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach and not in the lungs, preventing potential complications. Flushing the tube with saline may be required, but it should follow the verification of tube placement. Positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position is necessary for comfort during the procedure but is not the initial step. Administering the medication can only be done safely after confirming the correct placement of the NG tube.

2. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:

• A. Will you briefly summarize your point because others need time as well?
• B. Your behavior is obnoxious and drains the group.
• C. I am so frustrated with your behavior.
• D. To ignore the behavior and allow him to vent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.

3. The PN assigns a UAP to assist with the personal care of a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Which instruction should the PN provide the UAP?

• A. Assist the client with a hot bath
• B. Encourage self-care but allow rest periods
• C. Face the client directly when speaking
• D. Keep the head of the bed elevated at all times

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis, it is important to encourage self-care to maintain the client's independence. Allowing rest periods helps prevent fatigue, which is crucial in managing MS exacerbations. Choice A is incorrect as hot baths can exacerbate symptoms in MS. Choice C is about communication techniques and not directly related to client care during an exacerbation. Choice D is not a priority intervention during an MS exacerbation.

4. An adult client is undergoing weekly external radiation treatments for breast cancer. Upon arrival at the outpatient clinic for a scheduled treatment, the client reports increasing fatigue to the nurse who is taking the client's vital signs. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately
• B. Offer to reschedule the treatment for the following week
• C. Plan to monitor the client's vital signs every 30 minutes
• D. Reinforce the need for extra rest periods and plenty of sleep

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fatigue is a common side effect of radiation therapy. In this scenario, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to reinforce the importance of rest and adequate sleep. It is crucial to address the client's increasing fatigue by promoting self-care strategies such as additional rest periods and ensuring plenty of sleep. Rescheduling the treatment is not necessary for fatigue, and vital sign monitoring every 30 minutes may not directly address the client's reported symptom. Notifying the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately is not the first-line intervention for increasing fatigue, as this symptom can be managed through education and self-care recommendations.

5. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?

• A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
• B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
• C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
• D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.

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