HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. A female client taking a liquid iron preparation expresses concern that her tooth color has darkened since starting the medication. What action should the PN implement?
- A. Teach the client to use a straw when taking the medication to reduce further tooth staining
- B. Advise the client to withhold further doses until consulting with the healthcare provider
- C. Reassure the client that this change indicates the medication is having the desired effect
- D. Determine if the client is also experiencing mouth or gum pain and difficulty swallowing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the PN to implement is to teach the client to use a straw when taking the medication to reduce further tooth staining. Using a straw minimizes contact between the iron preparation and the teeth, helping prevent additional staining. Choice B is incorrect because withholding doses without consulting the healthcare provider could be detrimental to the client's health. Choice C is incorrect because darkening of tooth color is not an expected effect of liquid iron preparation and should not be reassured as a desired effect. Choice D is incorrect as it does not directly address the client's concern about tooth staining.
2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to its effects on the electrical conduction of the heart. High levels of potassium can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is not the most likely cause of cardiac arrhythmias compared to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (choice C), referring to high sodium levels, is not directly associated with causing cardiac arrhythmias. While hypokalemia (choice D), low potassium levels, can also lead to cardiac arrhythmias, hyperkalemia is the more likely culprit in causing severe disturbances in heart rhythm.
3. What is the primary cause of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
- A. Insulin deficiency
- B. Overhydration
- C. Excess carbohydrate intake
- D. Excess insulin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insulin deficiency. Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs due to a severe lack of insulin, causing the body to break down fat for energy, leading to the production of ketones and acidification of the blood. Option B, Overhydration, is incorrect as DKA is characterized by dehydration rather than overhydration. Option C, Excess carbohydrate intake, is incorrect because while high blood sugar levels can contribute to DKA, the primary cause is insulin deficiency. Option D, Excess insulin, is also incorrect as DKA is not caused by an excess of insulin but rather by a lack of it.
4. A client is complaining of a tingling sensation in the fingers, nose tip, and earlobes 24 hours after a total thyroidectomy. Which measure should the PN implement first?
- A. Apply sequential compression devices bilaterally
- B. Initiate prescribed L-thyroxine replacement therapy
- C. Obtain prescribed calcium gluconate for tetany
- D. Prepare for emergency tracheotomy at the bedside
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obtain prescribed calcium gluconate for tetany. Tingling sensations post-thyroidectomy may indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication that requires prompt treatment with calcium gluconate to prevent tetany. Initiating L-thyroxine replacement therapy (choice B) is important but not the first priority in this situation. Applying sequential compression devices (choice A) is not indicated for tingling sensations and does not address the potential complication of hypocalcemia. Preparing for an emergency tracheotomy (choice D) is not warranted based on the client's symptoms of tingling sensations.
5. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
- B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
- C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
- D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.
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