a post operative client is prescribed sequential compression devices scds while on bed rest what is the primary purpose of this device
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A post-operative client is prescribed sequential compression devices (SCDs) while on bed rest. What is the primary purpose of this device?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).' Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are primarily used to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by promoting blood flow in the legs and reducing venous stasis, which is a common risk for post-operative clients who are on bed rest. While SCDs do improve circulation in the legs indirectly, their primary purpose is DVT prevention. Preventing pressure ulcers is typically achieved through repositioning and support surfaces, not with SCDs, making choice C incorrect. SCDs are not used to alleviate post-operative pain, so choice D is also incorrect.

2. A client has a prescription for a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a lumbar laminectomy. Which information should the nurse reinforce about the action of this adjuvant pain modality?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. TENS works by delivering a mild electrical stimulus to the skin, which can help close the 'gates' in the nervous system to block pain signals from reaching the brain, thus reducing pain perception. Choice A is incorrect because TENS does not distract from pain but rather helps manage it. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different pain management technique involving medication in the spinal canal. Choice C is incorrect because TENS acts peripherally on nerve conduction rather than dulling pain perception in the cerebral cortex.

3. Which task could the PN safely delegate to the UAP?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because oral feeding of a child is a task that can be safely delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). This task involves providing basic care and does not require specialized nursing skills. Choices B, C, and D involve assessments, recording client goals, and evaluating pain, respectively, which all require specialized nursing knowledge, judgment, and skills. These tasks are not within the scope of practice for a UAP.

4. The nurse assigns a UAP to assist with the personal care of a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP to provide when assisting a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis is to encourage self-care but allow rest periods. Clients with multiple sclerosis often experience fatigue, so promoting self-care activities while ensuring they have adequate rest periods is crucial for symptom management and maintaining independence. Choice A is incorrect as hot baths can potentially exacerbate symptoms in clients with multiple sclerosis. Choice C is unrelated to the client's care needs during an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Choice D is not a priority instruction in this situation and may not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.

5. The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus how to differentiate between hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. What statement indicates to the nurse that the client has an understanding of this condition?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Shakiness is a symptom of hypoglycemia, which is low blood sugar. Taking glucose can help raise blood sugar levels quickly in this situation. Fruity breath odor and excessive urination are signs of ketoacidosis, a complication of diabetes involving high levels of ketones in the blood. Blurred vision can be a symptom of high blood sugar, but it is not specific to hypoglycemia.

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