Nursing Elites

1. A post-operative client is prescribed sequential compression devices (SCDs) while on bed rest. What is the primary purpose of this device?

• A. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
• B. To improve circulation in the legs.
• C. To prevent pressure ulcers.
• D. To alleviate post-operative pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).' Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are primarily used to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by promoting blood flow in the legs and reducing venous stasis, which is a common risk for post-operative clients who are on bed rest. While SCDs do improve circulation in the legs indirectly, their primary purpose is DVT prevention. Preventing pressure ulcers is typically achieved through repositioning and support surfaces, not with SCDs, making choice C incorrect. SCDs are not used to alleviate post-operative pain, so choice D is also incorrect.

2. What intervention should the PN implement when taking the rectal temperature of an adult client?

• A. Lubricate the tip of the thermometer with a water-based gel.
• B. Gently insert the thermometer 1 inch into the rectum.
• C. Hold the thermometer in place the entire time while taking the temperature.
• D. Place the client in the left lateral position.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When taking a rectal temperature, it is essential to hold the thermometer in place the entire time to ensure safety, accuracy, and prevent the thermometer from slipping out. Choice A, lubricating the tip of the thermometer with a water-based gel, is important for comfort and ease of insertion. Choice B, gently inserting the thermometer 1 inch into the rectum, is more accurate for adults than inserting it 3 inches. Choice D, placing the client in the left lateral position, is not necessary for a rectal temperature measurement.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.

4. An 8-year-old is placed in 90-90 traction for a fractured femur resulting from a motor vehicle collision. Which finding requires further action by the PN?

• A. No bowel movement for two days
• B. Mother assists child in changing positions
• C. Weights are touching the foot of the bed
• D. Child is able to move the toes freely when tickled

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In 90-90 traction, it is crucial to ensure that the weights are not touching the foot of the bed as this can disrupt the effective application of traction. This interference can hinder the proper alignment of the fractured femur and impede the healing process. Therefore, this finding requires immediate action to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the proper application of traction and do not pose a risk to the patient's treatment or well-being. No bowel movement for two days may indicate constipation but does not directly relate to the traction. Mother assisting the child in changing positions is a supportive action. The child being able to move the toes freely when tickled indicates neurological function, which is a positive sign.

5. A client who had a left hemicolectomy is experiencing a low-grade fever on post-operative day three. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Encourage deep breathing and the use of the incentive spirometer.
• B. Administer antipyretic medication as prescribed.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Increase the client’s fluid intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A low-grade fever on post-operative day three can be a sign of atelectasis, a common post-operative complication. Encouraging deep breathing and the use of the incentive spirometer can help prevent and treat this condition. Atelectasis is often due to shallow breathing, so option A is the best initial action to promote lung expansion. Administering antipyretic medication (option B) may help reduce the fever but does not directly address the underlying cause. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (option C) is not necessary at this point unless other concerning symptoms are present. Increasing the client’s fluid intake (option D) is important for overall recovery but is not the priority in this scenario.

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