Nursing Elites

1. A post-operative client is prescribed sequential compression devices (SCDs) while on bed rest. What is the primary purpose of this device?

• A. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
• B. To improve circulation in the legs.
• C. To prevent pressure ulcers.
• D. To alleviate post-operative pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).' Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are primarily used to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by promoting blood flow in the legs and reducing venous stasis, which is a common risk for post-operative clients who are on bed rest. While SCDs do improve circulation in the legs indirectly, their primary purpose is DVT prevention. Preventing pressure ulcers is typically achieved through repositioning and support surfaces, not with SCDs, making choice C incorrect. SCDs are not used to alleviate post-operative pain, so choice D is also incorrect.

2. A client with a prescription for a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management asks how it works. What information should the nurse reinforce?

• A. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus from the pain
• B. An infusion of medication in the spinal canal will block pain perception
• C. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of an electrical stimulus
• D. A mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve conduction for severe pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. TENS works by delivering a mild electrical stimulus that can block pain signals from reaching the brain, effectively reducing the perception of pain. Choice A is incorrect because TENS does not distract from pain but rather interferes with pain signals. Choice B is incorrect as TENS does not involve infusing medication into the spinal canal. Choice C is also incorrect because TENS does not target the cerebral cortex to dull pain perception but rather works at the level of nerve conduction.

3. After admission, which observation is most important for the nurse to report immediately for an adult client who weighs 150 pounds and has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body from a house fire?

• A. Poor appetite and refusal to eat
• B. Systolic blood pressure at 102
• C. Painful moaning and crying
• D. Urinary output of 20 ml/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urinary output of 20 ml/hr is a sign of inadequate kidney perfusion and could indicate hypovolemic shock, which requires immediate intervention. In this situation, with severe burns over a large portion of the body, monitoring urinary output is crucial to assess kidney function and fluid status. Poor appetite, systolic blood pressure at 102, and painful moaning and crying are important but do not indicate the immediate need for intervention like inadequate urinary output does.

4. A client with peripheral neuropathy due to cirrhosis is at risk for injury. What should the nurse do?

• A. Protect the client's feet from injury
• B. Apply a heating pad to the affected area
• C. Keep the client's feet elevated
• D. Assess the feet and legs for jaundice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protecting the client's feet from injury is critical as peripheral neuropathy can lead to decreased sensation and increased risk of trauma. This measure helps prevent wounds, ulcers, and other complications. Applying a heating pad (Choice B) can worsen symptoms and cause burns due to decreased sensation. Keeping the client's feet elevated (Choice C) may help reduce swelling but does not directly address the risk of injury. Assessing for jaundice (Choice D) is important in cirrhosis but is not directly related to the client's risk of injury due to peripheral neuropathy.

5. A client tells the PN that she has a family history of cancer and has increased the amount of dairy products in her diet to reduce her risk of getting cancer. How should the PN respond?

• A. Encourage the client to get plenty of exercise in addition to the dietary change
• B. Provide written information about the seven warning signs of cancer
• C. Remind the client to ensure that the dairy products are fortified with Vitamin D
• D. Suggest that an increase in fruits and vegetables is more beneficial

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Increasing fruits and vegetables in the diet is more beneficial in reducing cancer risk due to their high levels of antioxidants and fiber, which help protect against cancer. While exercise is important for overall health, in this context, focusing on fruits and vegetables is more relevant to reducing cancer risk than exercise alone. Providing information about cancer warning signs is not directly addressing the client's dietary choice. While Vitamin D is essential for various health aspects, the primary focus here should be on a diet rich in fruits and vegetables for cancer risk reduction.

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