HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?
- A. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
- B. Cystic fibrosis
- C. Down syndrome
- D. Sickle cell anemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.
2. A client experiencing preterm labor is being taught about terbutaline by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. “The medication could cause me to experience heart palpitations.”
- B. “This medication could cause me to experience blurred vision.”
- C. “This medication could cause me to experience ringing in my ears.”
- D. “This medication could cause me to experience frequent urination.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic agonist used to stop preterm labor. One of its common side effects is heart palpitations due to its action on beta receptors in the heart. Choices B and C are incorrect because blurred vision and ringing in the ears are not common side effects of terbutaline. Choice D is irrelevant to the side effects of terbutaline.
3. After assessing an older adult with a suspected cerebrovascular accident (CVA), the nurse documents the client's right upper arm weakness and slurred speech. When the client complains of a severe headache and nausea, and the neurological assessment remains unchanged, which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer an oral analgesic with antiemetic
- B. Collect blood for coagulation times
- C. Send the client for a computed tomography scan of the brain
- D. Obtain a history of medication use, recent surgery, or injury
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to send the client for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain. A CT scan is crucial in assessing acute changes or bleeding that could influence treatment decisions in a suspected cerebrovascular accident (CVA). While addressing symptoms like headache and nausea is important, ruling out acute changes in the brain with a CT scan takes precedence in this situation. Collecting blood for coagulation times may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Obtaining a history of medication use, recent surgery, or injury is also important but not the first action to take when a CVA is suspected.
4. Several clients on a busy antepartum unit are scheduled for procedures that require informed consent. Which situation should the nurse explore further before witnessing the client's signature on the consent form?
- A. The client was medicated for pain with a narcotic analgesic IM 6 hours ago
- B. A 15-year-old primigravida who has been self-supporting for the past 6 months
- C. The obstetrician explained a procedure that a neurologist will perform
- D. The client is illiterate but verbalizes understanding and consent for the procedure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an illiterate client may require additional support to ensure they fully comprehend the information provided in the informed consent process. It is crucial to confirm that the client truly understands the nature of the procedure, its risks, and benefits. While it is important to assess pain control (choice A), a client's previous medication administration does not directly impact their ability to understand the consent process. Choice B, a 15-year-old primigravida who has been self-supporting, may legally provide informed consent depending on the jurisdiction and circumstances, so this situation may not require further exploration. Choice C, explaining a procedure by a different specialist, does not necessarily require additional exploration before witnessing the client's consent.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a child with suspected pneumonia. What clinical manifestation is the healthcare provider likely to observe?
- A. Cough
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Rash
- D. Vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a child with suspected pneumonia, a healthcare provider is likely to observe a cough as a common clinical manifestation. Pneumonia often presents with symptoms such as cough, fever, difficulty breathing, and chest pain. Choice B, diarrhea, is not typically associated with pneumonia. Choice C, rash, is not a common clinical manifestation of pneumonia. Choice D, vomiting, is also not a typical symptom of pneumonia. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Cough.