which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the guthrie test
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2024

1. Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.

2. A client who had a hip replacement is being prepared for discharge. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching to prevent hip dislocation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid crossing your legs at the knees or ankles.' Crossing legs at the knees or ankles can cause excessive stress on the new hip joint, leading to a risk of dislocation. Choice B is incorrect because sleeping on the side of the operated hip can also increase the risk of dislocation. Choice C is incorrect as sitting in low chairs with knees higher than hips is a recommended position to prevent hip dislocation. Choice D is incorrect because bending forward at the waist to pick up objects can strain the hip joint and increase the risk of dislocation.

3. What is the first step in using an automated external defibrillator (AED) on a patient who has collapsed?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Turn on the AED and follow the voice prompts. This is the first step in using an AED as the device will guide you through the process of analyzing the heart rhythm and delivering a shock if necessary. Choice A, applying the pads to the chest, comes after turning on the AED. Checking the patient's pulse (Choice C) is not necessary before using an AED as the device is specifically designed to assess the need for defibrillation. Ensuring the area is clear (Choice D) is important for safety but is not the initial step in using an AED.

4. During a fire incident in a long-term care facility's kitchen, which task is most crucial for the PN to perform instead of delegating to UAP?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a fire emergency, the most critical task for the PN is to identify the method for transporting and evacuating each resident. This task ensures a safe and organized evacuation plan, which is essential for everyone's safety. Delegating this responsibility to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) may lead to errors or delays in the evacuation process. Closing doors to residents' rooms (Choice A) can help contain the fire but is not as urgent as planning the evacuation. While offering comfort and reassurance (Choice B) is important, it should not take precedence over ensuring a safe evacuation. Providing blankets (Choice D) is helpful but does not directly address the primary concern of safely evacuating residents.

5. A child with glomerulonephritis is admitted in the acute edematous phase. Based on this diagnosis, which nursing intervention should the nurse plan to include in the child's plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to measure blood pressure every 4 to 6 hours. Monitoring blood pressure frequently is crucial in managing glomerulonephritis, as hypertension is a common complication during the acute edematous phase. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the specific needs of a child with glomerulonephritis. Choice B is incorrect as excessive activity may not be suitable during the acute phase, as rest and monitoring are more important. Choice D is incorrect as the focus should be on monitoring vital signs rather than meal options.

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