Nursing Elites

1. Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?

• A. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
• B. Cystic fibrosis
• C. Down syndrome
• D. Sickle cell anemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.

2. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?

• A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
• B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
• C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
• D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.

3. A client who is at full-term gestation is in active labor and complains of a cramp in her leg. Which intervention should the PN implement?

• A. Massage the calf and foot
• B. Elevate the leg above the heart
• C. Check the pedal pulse in the affected leg
• D. Extend the leg and flex the foot

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During labor, muscle cramps are common due to prolonged muscle tension. The correct intervention to alleviate a cramp in the leg is to extend the leg and flex the foot. This action helps relieve the muscle spasm by stretching and contracting the muscles. Massaging the calf and foot (Choice A) may not be as effective in relieving the cramp as extending and flexing the leg. Elevating the leg above the heart (Choice B) is not necessary and may not directly address the cramp. Checking the pedal pulse (Choice C) is important for assessing circulation, but it does not directly address the muscle cramp.

4. The PN and UAP enter a client's room and find the client lying on the bed. The PN determines that the client is unresponsive. Which instruction should the PN give the UAP first?

• A. Obtain emergency help
• B. Feel for a carotid pulse
• C. Bring a glucometer to the room
• D. Check the blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the UAP to obtain emergency help first. When a client is unresponsive, it could indicate a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Ensuring emergency help is on the way is the priority to address the potentially critical situation. Feeling for a carotid pulse, bringing a glucometer, or checking the blood pressure are important assessments but should come after taking steps to secure immediate assistance.

5. The PN is reviewing instructions for the use of pilocarpine eye drops with a client who has glaucoma. The client replies that the drops are used to anesthetize the eye if eye pain is experienced. What action should the PN implement?

• A. Document in the chart that the client understands the correct action and use of eye drops
• B. Reassure the client that the drops will not be needed often since eye pain in glaucoma is not common
• C. Reteach the client about the action of the eye drops to decrease pressure in the eyes
• D. Explain to the client that the eye drops do not anesthetize the eyes but reduce pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pilocarpine eye drops are used to reduce intraocular pressure in glaucoma, not to anesthetize the eye. The PN should reteach the client about the purpose of the medication to ensure proper use and understanding, which is crucial for effective treatment. Choice A is incorrect because just documenting understanding without addressing the client's misconception is not enough. Choice B is incorrect as it provides incorrect information about the purpose of the eye drops and may lead to further misunderstanding. Choice D is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information stating that the drops provide pain relief, which is not their primary purpose.

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