which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the guthrie test
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2024

1. Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.

2. When caring for a patient with a fresh tracheostomy, what is the nurse’s first priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ensuring the tracheostomy ties are secure. This is the nurse's first priority because it is critical to prevent accidental decannulation, which could compromise the patient’s airway. Providing humidified oxygen, suctioning the tracheostomy tube, and monitoring for signs of infection are important aspects of care but ensuring the tracheostomy ties' security takes precedence to maintain the patient's airway.

3. The UAP reports to the PN that an assigned client experiences SOB when the bed is lowered for bathing. Which action should the PN implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Advising the UAP to allow the client to rest before completing the bath is the most appropriate action to take. This helps manage the shortness of breath (SOB) experienced by the client and prevents further stress. By giving the client time to rest, the PN ensures the client's comfort and safety during care activities. The other options are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario: obtaining further data about activity intolerance (choice A) may delay addressing the current issue, obtaining vital signs and pulse oximetry (choice C) is important but not as immediate as allowing the client to rest, and notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is premature before trying a simple intervention like allowing the client to rest.

4. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

5. There has been a serious explosion at a local factory, and many of the injured are arriving at the hospital. Which of the following patients should a nurse attend to first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The 19-year-old man with a respiration rate exceeding 30 breaths per minute is showing signs of respiratory distress, indicating a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Patients with respiratory distress should be prioritized as it is a critical condition. Choices A, B, and C describe patients with injuries that are less immediately life-threatening or who are more stable based on the provided information, so they can be attended to after the patient with respiratory distress. Therefore, the nurse should attend to the 19-year-old man first to address his respiratory distress and ensure his condition does not deteriorate further.

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