Nursing Elites

1. Which serum blood finding in diabetic ketoacidosis alerts the nurse that immediate action is required?

• A. pH below 7.3
• B. Potassium of 5.0
• C. HCT of 60
• D. PaO2 of 79%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A hematocrit (HCT) of 60 indicates severe dehydration, a critical condition in diabetic ketoacidosis that requires immediate intervention. Severe dehydration can lead to hypovolemic shock and organ failure. While a low pH below 7.3 is indicative of acidosis, it may not require immediate action compared to severe dehydration. A potassium level of 5.0 is within the normal range and not a critical finding in this scenario. PaO2 of 79% reflects oxygenation status, which is important but not the most critical finding requiring immediate action in diabetic ketoacidosis.

2. A client with stage IV lung cancer is 3 days postoperative following a wedge resection. The client states, “I told myself that I would go through with the surgery and quit smoking, if I could just live long enough to attend my child’s wedding.” Based on the Kubler-Ross model, which stage of grief is the client experiencing?

• A. Anger
• B. Denial
• C. Bargaining
• D. Acceptance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is in the bargaining stage of grief according to the Kubler-Ross model. In this stage, individuals negotiate for more time to achieve specific goals or fulfill desires. The client's statement about quitting smoking to attend their child's wedding reflects this bargaining behavior. Anger (choice A) is characterized by frustration and resentment, denial (choice B) involves avoidance of reality, and acceptance (choice D) signifies coming to terms with the situation, none of which align with the client's current mindset of bargaining.

3. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

4. The nurse is preparing to assist a newly admitted client with personal hygiene measures. The nurse wants to assess the client's gag reflex. Which action should the nurse include?

• A. Offer small sips of water through a straw
• B. Place tongue blade on back half of tongue
• C. Use a penlight to observe back of the oral cavity
• D. Auscultate breath sounds after the client swallows

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include when assessing the client's gag reflex is to place a tongue blade on the back half of the tongue. This method effectively tests the gag reflex without causing discomfort. Choice A is incorrect because offering small sips of water through a straw does not assess the gag reflex. Choice C is incorrect as using a penlight to observe the back of the oral cavity does not directly assess the gag reflex. Choice D is incorrect since auscultating breath sounds after the client swallows does not evaluate the gag reflex.

5. How should a healthcare professional care for a client approaching death with shortness of breath and noisy respirations?

• A. Turn the client every 2 hours
• B. Provide supplemental oxygen
• C. Use a fan to reduce the feeling of breathlessness
• D. Administer diuretics as prescribed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a palliative care setting, when caring for a client approaching death with symptoms of shortness of breath and noisy respirations, using a fan can help alleviate the sensation of breathlessness. This intervention can provide comfort by improving air circulation and reducing the perception of breathlessness. Turning the client every 2 hours may not directly address the respiratory distress caused by noisy respirations. Providing supplemental oxygen may not be indicated or effective in all cases, especially in end-of-life care where the focus is on comfort rather than aggressive interventions. Administering diuretics as prescribed would not be appropriate for addressing noisy respirations and shortness of breath in a dying client, as this may not be related to fluid overload or congestion. Therefore, the most appropriate action to help the client feel more comfortable in this situation is to use a fan to reduce the feeling of breathlessness.

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