Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving oxygen therapy. Which observation indicates that the client is experiencing oxygen toxicity?

• A. Nasal congestion
• B. Cough
• C. Sore throat
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Sore throat.' Oxygen toxicity can manifest with symptoms like a sore throat, cough, chest pain, difficulty breathing, and fatigue. However, a sore throat can be an early indicator of oxygen toxicity and should prompt immediate attention. Nasal congestion, cough, and fatigue are not specific indicators of oxygen toxicity but could be related to other factors in a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy.

2. A client is experiencing a severe sore throat, pain when swallowing, and swollen lymph nodes. Which of the following stages of infection is the client likely in?

• A. Prodromal
• B. Incubation
• C. Convalescence
• D. Illness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client in this scenario is in the illness stage of infection. During this stage, the individual exhibits specific symptoms such as a severe sore throat, pain when swallowing, and swollen lymph nodes. The prodromal stage precedes the appearance of specific symptoms and is characterized by nonspecific signs. The incubation period occurs between exposure to the pathogen and the onset of symptoms. Convalescence is the recovery period following the resolution of the infection. Therefore, the correct answer is 'D: Illness' as it aligns with the symptoms presented by the client.

3. In a disaster at a child day care center, which child would the triage nurse prioritize for treatment last?

• A. An infant with intermittent bulging anterior fontanel between crying episodes
• B. A toddler with severe deep abrasions covering 98% of the body
• C. A preschooler with a lower leg fracture and an upper leg fracture on the other leg
• D. A school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair on the arms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The toddler with severe deep abrasions covering 98% of the body would be prioritized for treatment last because these extensive injuries may require immediate attention and resources. The other choices present serious conditions but are not as severe or life-threatening as the toddler's injuries. The infant with an intermittent bulging anterior fontanel may have signs of increased intracranial pressure, requiring prompt evaluation. The preschooler's fractures, though serious, can be managed without immediate critical intervention. The school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair may have suffered burns but does not exhibit injuries as severe as the toddler's deep abrasions.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to provide chest physiotherapy for a client who has left lower lobe atelectasis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?

• A. Place the client in Trendelenburg's position.
• B. Position the client in an upright sitting position.
• C. Administer bronchodilators after the procedure.
• D. Perform chest percussion and vibration while the client is lying flat.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the client in Trendelenburg's position is the appropriate action when providing chest physiotherapy for a client with left lower lobe atelectasis. This position helps mobilize secretions from the lower lobes of the lungs, aiding in their clearance. Trendelenburg's position promotes drainage from the affected area. Positioning the client in an upright sitting position (Choice B) would not facilitate the drainage of secretions from the affected lobe. Administering bronchodilators after the procedure (Choice C) is not directly related to chest physiotherapy and the treatment of atelectasis. Performing chest percussion and vibration while the client is lying flat (Choice D) may not effectively target the lower lobes where the atelectasis is located.

5. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

Similar Questions