Nursing Elites

1. A client has acute renal failure. Which of the following assessments provides the most accurate measure of the client's fluid status?

• A. Daily weight
• B. Intake and output
• C. Urine specific gravity
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Daily weight is the most accurate measure of fluid status in a client with acute renal failure. Fluctuations in weight reflect changes in body fluid volume, including both fluid retention or loss. Intake and output, while important, may not always accurately reflect overall fluid status as it does not account for insensible losses. Urine specific gravity can provide information on urine concentration but does not offer a comprehensive assessment of overall fluid status. Peripheral edema, although a sign of fluid retention, is a more subjective assessment and may not always accurately reflect the client's fluid status like daily weight monitoring does.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
• C. I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
• D. I can take aspirin if I have a headache.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: I can take aspirin if I have a headache.' This statement indicates a need for further teaching because aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Clients on warfarin therapy should avoid taking aspirin or any other medications that can increase the risk of bleeding without consulting their healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that demonstrate understanding of warfarin therapy and its potential side effects. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K helps maintain the effectiveness of warfarin, taking medication at the same time every day ensures consistent therapeutic levels, and using a soft toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding, which can be a side effect of warfarin therapy.

3. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is admitting a client. Which of the following information should the nurse document in the client's record first?

• A. Assessment
• B. Plan of care
• C. Client history
• D. Medication list

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessment. When admitting a client, the nurse should document assessment data first. This information is crucial as it provides a baseline for planning care and treatment. By documenting the assessment initially, the nurse can accurately identify the client's needs and prioritize care. Choice B, Plan of care, would be developed based on the assessment findings, so it should come after the initial assessment. Choices C and D, Client history and Medication list, are important but would typically be documented after the assessment to ensure that the most current and relevant information is captured in the client's record.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 1,000-mL IV to infuse over 10 hr. How many mL/hr should the IV infusion pump be set to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 100 mL/hr
• B. 150 mL/hr
• C. 75 mL/hr
• D. 50 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To infuse 1,000 mL over 10 hr, the IV pump should be set to deliver 100 mL/hr. This calculation is derived by dividing the total volume (1,000 mL) by the total time in hours (10 hr), resulting in the infusion rate of 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the correct calculation for this scenario.

5. A client has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

• A. Droplet
• B. Contact
• C. Airborne
• D. Protective

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pharyngeal diphtheria is transmitted via droplets, primarily through respiratory secretions. Therefore, droplet precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the infection. Droplet precautions involve wearing a surgical mask, goggles, and a gown when within three feet of the client. Contact precautions are used for diseases transmitted by direct or indirect contact; airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted through airborne particles; protective precautions are not a standard precaution type.

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