Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating the body alignment of a standing patient. Which finding will the healthcare professional report as normal?

• A. When observed laterally, the spinal curves align in a reversed 'S' pattern.
• B. When observed posteriorly, the hips and shoulders form an 'S' pattern.
• C. The arms should be crossed over the chest or in the lap.
• D. The feet should be close together with toes pointed out.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a standing assessment, the healthcare professional should observe the patient laterally. In a normal body alignment, the head is erect, and the spinal curves align in a reversed 'S' pattern, aiding in maintaining balance and posture. Choice B is incorrect because hips and shoulders should be level and not form an 'S' pattern when observed posteriorly. Choice C is incorrect as the position of the arms is not a key indicator of body alignment. Choice D is incorrect as the feet should be shoulder-width apart with toes pointing forward for optimal balance and stability.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Which symptom should the healthcare provider expect to observe?

• A. Muscle weakness
• B. Joint pain
• C. Vision changes
• D. Skin rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a hallmark symptom of myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder characterized by impaired neuromuscular transmission. This results in muscle weakness, particularly in skeletal muscles that control eye movements, facial expressions, chewing, swallowing, and speaking. Joint pain (Choice B) is not a typical symptom of myasthenia gravis and is more commonly associated with conditions like arthritis. Vision changes (Choice C) may occur in conditions affecting the eyes, but they are not specific to myasthenia gravis. Skin rash (Choice D) is also not a typical manifestation of myasthenia gravis. Therefore, the correct answer is muscle weakness (Choice A).

3. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

• A. 42 gtt/min
• B. 83 gtt/min
• C. 125 gtt/min
• D. 250 gtt/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

4. The nurse is providing wound care to a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer that has a large amount of eschar. The wound care prescription states 'clean the wound and then apply collagenase.' Collagenase is a debriding agent. The prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Which technique should the nurse use to cleanse the pressure ulcer?

• A. Lightly coat the wound with povidone-iodine solution
• B. Irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline
• C. Flush the wound with sterile hydrogen peroxide
• D. Remove the eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irrigating the wound with sterile normal saline is the correct technique for cleansing a wound when the prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Sterile normal saline is a standard and safe solution that helps to remove debris and promote healing without damaging healthy tissue. Choice A, using povidone-iodine solution, can be cytotoxic and delay wound healing. Choice C, using hydrogen peroxide, can be cytotoxic, cause tissue damage, and delay wound healing. Choice D, using wet-to-dry dressing to remove eschar, is an outdated and non-selective method that can cause trauma to the wound bed and delay healing. Therefore, choice B is the best option for wound cleansing in this scenario.

5. When providing mouth care for an unconscious client, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Turn the client’s head to the side.
• B. Place two fingers in the client’s mouth to open it.
• C. Brush the client’s teeth once per day.
• D. Inject mouth rinse into the center of the client’s mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When providing mouth care for an unconscious client, the nurse should turn the client’s head to the side. This action helps prevent aspiration by allowing any fluids to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration pneumonia. Placing fingers into the client’s mouth can be dangerous and may cause injury. Brushing the client’s teeth only once a day may not be sufficient for proper oral hygiene care. Injecting mouth rinse into the center of the mouth is not recommended and can potentially lead to aspiration. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to turn the client’s head to the side.

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