Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating the body alignment of a standing patient. Which finding will the healthcare professional report as normal?

• A. When observed laterally, the spinal curves align in a reversed 'S' pattern.
• B. When observed posteriorly, the hips and shoulders form an 'S' pattern.
• C. The arms should be crossed over the chest or in the lap.
• D. The feet should be close together with toes pointed out.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a standing assessment, the healthcare professional should observe the patient laterally. In a normal body alignment, the head is erect, and the spinal curves align in a reversed 'S' pattern, aiding in maintaining balance and posture. Choice B is incorrect because hips and shoulders should be level and not form an 'S' pattern when observed posteriorly. Choice C is incorrect as the position of the arms is not a key indicator of body alignment. Choice D is incorrect as the feet should be shoulder-width apart with toes pointing forward for optimal balance and stability.

2. A client is being taught how to self-administer daily low-dose heparin injections. Which of the following factors is most likely to increase the client’s motivation to learn?

• A. The client’s belief that his needs will be met through education
• B. The nurse’s empathy regarding the client's self-injection
• C. The client seeking family approval by agreeing to a teaching plan
• D. The nurse explaining the need for education to the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's belief that his needs will be met through education is the most likely factor to increase motivation to learn. When individuals perceive that their educational efforts will directly benefit them, they are more motivated to engage in the learning process. Empathy from the nurse, seeking family approval, or the nurse explaining the need for education may not be as directly tied to the client's personal benefit and may not necessarily increase motivation to learn.

3. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) places a client in a left lateral position before administering a soap suds enema. Which instruction should the LPN/LVN provide the UAP?

• A. Position the client on the right side of the bed in reverse Trendelenburg.
• B. Fill the enema container with 1000 ml of warm water and 5 ml of castile soap.
• C. Reposition the client in a Sim's position with the weight on the anterior ilium.
• D. Raise the side rails on both sides of the bed and elevate the bed to waist level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the LPN/LVN should provide to the UAP is to reposition the client in a Sim's position with the weight on the anterior ilium for administering a soap suds enema. This position helps facilitate the administration of the enema by providing better access and comfort for the client. Choice A is incorrect as reverse Trendelenburg is not the appropriate position for administering a soap suds enema. Choice B is incorrect as the concentration of soap in the enema solution is not specified and might be too strong. Choice D is incorrect as raising the side rails and elevating the bed does not directly relate to the proper positioning for administering the enema.

4. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?

• A. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L
• B. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 2L
• C. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 4L
• D. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 8L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.

5. A nurse is assessing the heart sounds of a client who has developed chest pain that becomes worse with inspiration. The nurse auscultates a high-pitched scratching sound during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?

• A. Pericardial friction rub
• B. Mitral stenosis
• C. Aortic regurgitation
• D. Tricuspid stenosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral stenosis. A high-pitched scratching sound heard during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border indicates mitral stenosis, not a pericardial friction rub. Pericardial friction rub is a to-and-fro, grating, or scratching sound due to inflamed pericardial surfaces rubbing together, typically heard in early diastole and late systole. Aortic regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis would present with different auscultatory findings compared to the described scenario, making them incorrect choices in this context.

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