Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating the body alignment of a standing patient. Which finding will the healthcare professional report as normal?

• A. When observed laterally, the spinal curves align in a reversed 'S' pattern.
• B. When observed posteriorly, the hips and shoulders form an 'S' pattern.
• C. The arms should be crossed over the chest or in the lap.
• D. The feet should be close together with toes pointed out.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a standing assessment, the healthcare professional should observe the patient laterally. In a normal body alignment, the head is erect, and the spinal curves align in a reversed 'S' pattern, aiding in maintaining balance and posture. Choice B is incorrect because hips and shoulders should be level and not form an 'S' pattern when observed posteriorly. Choice C is incorrect as the position of the arms is not a key indicator of body alignment. Choice D is incorrect as the feet should be shoulder-width apart with toes pointing forward for optimal balance and stability.

2. A client has been sitting in a chair for 1 hour. Which of the following complications poses the greatest risk to the client?

• A. Decreased subcutaneous fat
• B. Muscle atrophy
• C. Pressure injury
• D. Fecal impaction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pressure injury. Prolonged sitting can lead to pressure injuries due to continuous pressure on certain body areas, reducing blood flow and causing tissue damage. While decreased subcutaneous fat, muscle atrophy, and fecal impaction are potential concerns, pressure injuries pose the greatest immediate risk as they can lead to serious complications such as tissue necrosis and infection if not addressed promptly. Decreased subcutaneous fat and muscle atrophy may develop over time with prolonged immobility but are not as acutely dangerous as a pressure injury. Fecal impaction, while uncomfortable and potentially serious, does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the development of a pressure injury.

3. The healthcare provider is reviewing the plan of care for a client with a newly placed colostomy. Which outcome would indicate effective client teaching?

• A. Client demonstrates how to irrigate the colostomy.
• B. Client verbalizes understanding of dietary changes.
• C. Client performs ostomy care independently.
• D. Client expresses feelings about the impact of the colostomy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because effective teaching is demonstrated when the client can independently perform ostomy care. This indicates that the client has understood and retained the information provided during teaching. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because demonstrating how to irrigate the colostomy, verbalizing understanding of dietary changes, and expressing feelings about the impact of the colostomy are important aspects of care but do not directly reflect the client's ability to apply the taught information in a practical setting.

4. A healthcare professional is teaching about home safety with a client. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Unplug electronics by holding the plug
• B. Use electrical tape to secure extension cords next to baseboards on the floor
• C. To use a fire extinguisher, aim at the base of the flames
• D. Install slip-resistant rugs on tile floors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to use electrical tape to secure extension cords next to baseboards on the floor. This practice helps prevent tripping and electrical hazards by keeping cords out of the way. Option A is incorrect as unplugging electronics should be done by holding the plug, not the cord itself. Option C is incorrect because when using a fire extinguisher, it should be aimed at the base of the flames, not at the top. Option D is not directly related to home safety teaching and may not be necessary for all clients, as it suggests an unnecessary change that may not improve safety.

5. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

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