Nursing Elites

1. Examination reveals that the laboring client's cervix is dilated to 2 centimeters, 70% effaced with the presenting part at -2 station. The client tells the nurse, 'I need my epidural now, this hurts.' The nurse's response to the client is based on which information?

• A. The client will need to be catheterized before the epidural can be administered.
• B. Administering an epidural at this point would slow down the labor process.
• C. The client should be dilated to at least 8 centimeters before receiving an epidural.
• D. The baby needs to be at a zero station before an epidural can be administered.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering an epidural too early in labor, especially at 2 cm dilation, can slow down the progress of labor. It is usually recommended to wait until labor is more established. Choice A is incorrect because catheterization is not a prerequisite for epidural administration. Choice C is incorrect as waiting until 8 cm dilation is not a standard requirement for epidural administration. Choice D is incorrect because the baby's station being at zero is not a strict criterion for epidural administration.

2. What should be the primary focus of nursing care in the transitional phase of labor for a client who anticipates an unmedicated delivery?

• A. Assessing the strength of uterine contractions
• B. Re-evaluating the need for medication
• C. Reminding her to push 3 times with each contraction
• D. Assisting her to maintain control

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the transitional phase of labor, which is the most intense phase, the primary focus of nursing care for a client who anticipates an unmedicated delivery should be assisting her to maintain control. This is essential to help her manage the intense pain and anxiety associated with this phase without the use of medication. Assessing the strength of uterine contractions (Choice A) is important but not the primary focus during the transitional phase. Re-evaluating the need for medication (Choice B) is not applicable as the client anticipates an unmedicated delivery. Reminding her to push 3 times with each contraction (Choice C) is more related to the pushing stage of labor and not the transitional phase.

3. What is a procedure for using ultrasonic sound waves to create a picture of an embryo or fetus?

• A. Phenotype
• B. Sonogram
• C. Genotype
• D. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A sonogram, also known as an ultrasound, is a procedure that utilizes sound waves to generate images of a developing embryo or fetus. This imaging technique is commonly used in prenatal care to monitor fetal development and identify any potential abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a phenotype refers to an individual's observable traits resulting from genetic and environmental influences, a genotype is an individual's genetic makeup, and an alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay is a blood test used to screen for certain birth defects.

4. Preconception counseling is crucial for the safe management of diabetic pregnancies. Which complication is commonly associated with poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy?

• A. Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia
• B. Congenital anomalies in the fetus
• C. Hydramnios
• D. Hyperemesis gravidarum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Preconception counseling is essential as strict metabolic control before conception and in the early weeks of gestation helps reduce the risk of congenital anomalies. Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia usually occur during the first trimester due to hormonal changes, affecting insulin production and use, rather than before conception. Hydramnios is more common in diabetic pregnancies, typically seen in the third trimester, not during early pregnancy. Hyperemesis gravidarum, although it may lead to hypoglycemic events, is related to decreased food intake and glucose transfer to the fetus, exacerbating hypoglycemia rather than being directly associated with poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy.

5. Jill bears the genetic code for Von Willebrand disease, but she has never developed the illness herself. Jill would be considered:

• A. a carrier of the recessive gene that causes the disease.
• B. susceptible to the disease after adolescence.
• C. an acceptor of the recessive gene that causes the disease.
• D. susceptible to the disease in late adulthood.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Jill is a carrier of the recessive gene for Von Willebrand disease. Being a carrier means that she has one copy of the gene but does not show symptoms of the disease. Carriers can pass on the gene to their offspring. Choice B is incorrect as being a carrier does not mean she is susceptible to developing the disease after adolescence. Choice C is incorrect as 'acceptor' is not a term used in genetics in this context. Choice D is incorrect as susceptibility to the disease is not related to late adulthood in carriers of a recessive gene.

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