Nursing Elites

1. A woman has experienced iron deficiency anemia during her pregnancy. She had been taking iron for 3 months before the birth. The client gave birth by cesarean 2 days earlier and has been having problems with constipation. After assisting her back to bed from the bathroom, the nurse notes that the woman’s stools are dark (greenish-black). What should the nurse’s initial action be?

• A. Perform a guaiac test and record the results.
• B. Recognize the finding as abnormal and report it to the primary health care provider.
• C. Recognize the finding as a normal result of iron therapy.
• D. Check the woman’s next stool to validate the observation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should recognize that dark stools are a common side effect in clients who are taking iron replacement therapy. Dark stools are a known, expected result of iron supplementation and are not indicative of a complication unless other symptoms of GI bleeding are present. A guaiac test would be necessary if there were concerns about gastrointestinal bleeding. Recognizing dark stools as a consequence of iron therapy is an essential nursing assessment skill and does not require immediate reporting. Checking the next stool to confirm the observation is unnecessary as the presence of dark stools in this context is already an expected outcome of iron supplementation.

2. According to a study in the year 2013 by Fellman, if a woman is a twin, if her mother was a twin, or if she has previously borne twins, then:

• A. she will bear only monozygotic (MZ) twins.
• B. the chances of her becoming pregnant decrease.
• C. she is likely to be a healthy mother.
• D. the chances rise that she will bear twins.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to the study, the chances of a woman bearing twins increase if she is a twin herself, if her mother was a twin, or if she has previously borne twins. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A is incorrect because the study does not specify that she will bear only monozygotic twins. Choice B is incorrect as the study does not mention any decrease in the chances of becoming pregnant. Choice C is incorrect because the study does not provide information about the woman's health status, focusing instead on the likelihood of bearing twins.

3. Matt is a 36-year-old male. In the past year, he has noticed that his limbs sometimes move on their own, and he has also started having trouble remembering things and doing simple calculations. Matt’s father and grandfather were also known to have similar problems during their adulthood. Matt is most likely suffering from:

• A. Phenylketonuria (PKU).
• B. Cystic fibrosis.
• C. Turner syndrome.
• D. Huntington’s disease (HD).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Matt is exhibiting symptoms typical of Huntington’s disease (HD), a hereditary condition characterized by involuntary movements, cognitive impairment, and behavioral changes. The fact that Matt's father and grandfather had similar issues supports the genetic nature of the disease. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder that affects amino acid metabolism, not presenting with the symptoms described. Cystic fibrosis primarily affects the respiratory and digestive systems, not causing the neurological symptoms described. Turner syndrome is a genetic condition affecting females and is not associated with the symptoms described in the case of Matt.

4. What is the primary role of meiosis in the production of sperm and ova?

• A. To reduce the chromosome number by half
• B. To increase the chromosome number
• C. To create identical copies of chromosomes
• D. To repair damaged chromosomes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Meiosis is a type of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half, resulting in the formation of sperm and ova. Choice B is incorrect because meiosis does not increase the chromosome number. Choice C is incorrect because meiosis creates genetically diverse gametes, not identical copies of chromosomes. Choice D is incorrect because meiosis does not primarily function to repair damaged chromosomes.

5. A 38-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery after a non-reactive result on a non-stress test (NST). The nurse begins a contraction stress test (CST) with an oxytocin infusion. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. A pattern of fetal late decelerations.
• B. Fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement.
• C. Absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes.
• D. Spontaneous rupture of membranes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A pattern of fetal late decelerations. Late decelerations during a contraction stress test are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can pose a risk to fetal well-being. Reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement, is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes, may require further assessment but is not as critical as late decelerations. Choice D, spontaneous rupture of membranes, is important but not the most immediate concern during a contraction stress test.

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