HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Test Bank
1. Which of the following statements is a characteristic of supermales?
- A. They are somewhat taller than average.
- B. Their facial hair growth is minimal when compared to normal males.
- C. They suffer from gynecomastia.
- D. They are typically impotent.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct characteristic of supermales, individuals with an XYY chromosome pattern, is that they are somewhat taller than average. Choice B is incorrect as supermales do not exhibit minimal facial hair growth compared to normal males. Choice C is incorrect as gynecomastia, the development of male breasts, is not a characteristic of supermales. Choice D is also incorrect as impotence is not a typical characteristic associated with supermales.
2. A weight reduction regimen calls for a daily intake of 1400 kilocalories, which includes 30 grams of fat. What percentage of the total energy is contributed by fat?
- A. 8.50%
- B. 15.00%
- C. 19.00%
- D. 25.50%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the percentage of total energy contributed by fat, first determine the energy from fat by multiplying the fat amount (30g) by the energy density of fat (9 kcal/g), which equals 270 kcal. Then, divide the energy from fat (270 kcal) by the total energy intake (1400 kcal) and multiply by 100 to find the percentage: (270 kcal / 1400 kcal) * 100 = 19.29% ≈ 19.00%. Therefore, fat contributes approximately 19% of the total energy in the diet. Choice A (8.50%) is too low, while choices B (15.00%) and D (25.50%) are incorrect calculations based on the given information.
3. The doctor has ordered 20 cc per hour of normal saline intravenously for your pediatric patient. You will be using pediatric intravenous tubing that delivers 60 cc per drop. How many drops per minute will you administer using this pediatric intravenous set?
- A. 30 drops per minute
- B. 25 drops per minute
- C. 20 drops per minute
- D. 22 drops per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute, first convert the ordered amount to drops per minute. 20 cc per hour equals 20 drops per hour with 60 cc per drop tubing, which is equivalent to 20 drops per hour * 60 cc per drop = 1200 drops per hour. To find drops per minute, divide 1200 by 60 (minutes in an hour), which equals 20 drops per minute. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 drops per minute. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.
4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of bleeding
- B. Decreased risk of bleeding
- C. Increased risk of infection
- D. Decreased risk of infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing blood clots. While this is beneficial for individuals with a history of deep vein thrombosis, it also increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for bleeding is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to take appropriate actions if necessary. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because apixaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern when administering apixaban is monitoring for potential bleeding complications.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via a nasal cannula. Which assessment finding indicates a potential complication of oxygen therapy?
- A. Increased respiratory rate
- B. Decreased level of consciousness
- C. Improved oxygen saturation
- D. Complaints of dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with COPD, oxygen therapy can lead to a decrease in the respiratory drive caused by the removal of the hypoxic drive. This can result in carbon dioxide retention, leading to a decreased level of consciousness. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because an increased respiratory rate is typically a sign of hypoxia, improved oxygen saturation is a positive response to oxygen therapy, and complaints of dry mouth are not directly related to oxygen therapy complications in this scenario.