which of the following statements is a characteristic of supermales
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1. Which of the following statements is a characteristic of supermales?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct characteristic of supermales, individuals with an XYY chromosome pattern, is that they are somewhat taller than average. Choice B is incorrect as supermales do not exhibit minimal facial hair growth compared to normal males. Choice C is incorrect as gynecomastia, the development of male breasts, is not a characteristic of supermales. Choice D is also incorrect as impotence is not a typical characteristic associated with supermales.

2. The nurse is providing care for a newborn who was delivered vaginally assisted by forceps. The nurse observes red marks on the head with swelling that does not cross the suture line. Which condition should the nurse document in the medical record?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cephalhematoma. Cephalhematoma is a collection of blood between the skull bone and periosteum that does not cross the suture line. It often occurs due to birth trauma, such as forceps delivery, leading to localized swelling. Caput succedaneum (Choice A) is diffuse swelling of the scalp that may cross suture lines and is typically present at birth. Hydrocephalus (Choice B) is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain's ventricles. Microcephaly (Choice D) is a condition characterized by a smaller than average head size and may be present at birth or develop later in infancy.

3. A client who is receiving prenatal care is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1-hour glucose tolerance test. At around 24-28 weeks of gestation, a pregnant individual is typically screened for gestational diabetes. The 1-hour glucose tolerance test helps in identifying elevated blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Choice A, Group B strep culture, is not typically performed at the 24-week appointment but later in the third trimester to screen for Group B streptococcus colonization. Choice C, Rubella titer, is usually checked early in pregnancy to determine immunity to rubella. Choice D, Blood type and Rh, is important for determining the client's blood type and Rh status, but it is usually done earlier in pregnancy and not specifically at the 24-week appointment.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a preterm newborn who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following finding should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a preterm newborn at 32 weeks of gestation, healthcare providers should expect minimal arm recoil. This finding is common in preterm infants due to lower muscle tone. Choice B, a popliteal angle of less than 90°, is incorrect for this age group. Creases over the entire sole (Choice C) typically develop at term age, not at 32 weeks of gestation. Sparse lanugo (Choice D) is a normal finding in preterm infants but is not specific to those at 32 weeks of gestation.

5. What is a procedure for using ultrasonic sound waves to create a picture of an embryo or fetus?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A sonogram, also known as an ultrasound, is a procedure that utilizes sound waves to generate images of a developing embryo or fetus. This imaging technique is commonly used in prenatal care to monitor fetal development and identify any potential abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a phenotype refers to an individual's observable traits resulting from genetic and environmental influences, a genotype is an individual's genetic makeup, and an alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay is a blood test used to screen for certain birth defects.

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