Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements can motivate a couple to practice family planning?

• A. Family planning helps families improve their standard of living.
• B. Family planning reduces or eliminates fear of unwanted pregnancies.
• C. Family planning affords family members time to study or pursue personal interests.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the listed statements provide valid reasons to motivate couples to practice family planning. Option A highlights how family planning can lead to an improvement in the standard of living by allowing families to better manage their resources. Option B emphasizes the importance of family planning in reducing or eliminating the fear of unwanted pregnancies, which can have significant emotional and financial implications for couples. Option C points out that family planning can also afford family members time to focus on personal development, such as studying or pursuing personal interests, without the added responsibilities of unplanned pregnancies. Therefore, all these factors combined can serve as strong motivators for couples to consider and practice family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them individually provides a valid reason to motivate couples, making the comprehensive answer D the most appropriate.

2. During a visit to the community health clinic, a 45-year-old Native American female, who has a BMI of 35, complains of changes in her vision. Which condition is most important for the RN to be aware of in the client's family history?

• A. Diabetes
• B. Glaucoma
• C. Hypertension
• D. Brain Tumor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diabetes. Given the client's Native American ethnicity, high BMI, and vision changes, diabetes is the most crucial condition for the nurse to be aware of in the client's family history. Diabetes is strongly associated with vision problems, especially diabetic retinopathy. Glaucoma (choice B) is a condition that affects the optic nerve and can lead to vision loss but is not as directly linked to the client's BMI and ethnic background. Hypertension (choice C) can also impact vision, but in this case, diabetes takes precedence based on the client's profile. Brain tumor (choice D) is less likely to be related to the client's BMI, ethnicity, and vision changes compared to diabetes.

3. A 16-year-old female client returns to the clinic because she is pregnant for the third time by a new boyfriend. Which vaccine should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Measles-mumps-rubella.
• B. Hepatitis B.
• C. Human papillomavirus.
• D. Pneumococcal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hepatitis B. The Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for pregnant women as it helps prevent transmission of the virus to the baby during childbirth. Measles-mumps-rubella vaccine (choice A) is not directly related to the current situation of the client being pregnant. Human papillomavirus vaccine (choice C) is recommended for adolescents but is not specifically indicated in this case. Pneumococcal vaccine (choice D) is not a priority in this scenario compared to Hepatitis B, which is crucial for preventing vertical transmission.

4. Which of these tests with frequency would the nurse expect to monitor for the evaluation of clients with poor glycemic control in persons aged 18 and older?

• A. A glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) should be performed during an initial assessment and during follow-up assessments, which should occur at no longer than 3-month intervals
• B. A glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at least twice a year
• C. A fasting glucose and a glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at 3-month intervals after the initial assessment
• D. A glucose tolerance test, a fasting glucose, and a glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at 6-month intervals after the initial assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) testing every 3 months is recommended for clients with poor glycemic control to monitor their average blood sugar levels and adjust treatment as necessary. Choice A is correct as it aligns with the guideline of performing A1c testing every 3 months. Choice B is incorrect because testing at least twice a year may not provide adequate monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions testing at 3-month intervals without specifying the importance of A1c testing. Choice D is incorrect as it includes unnecessary tests like glucose tolerance test and does not emphasize the importance of more frequent A1c monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control.

5. During the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute, the nurse would be most concerned about which unreported finding?

• A. Pulse oximetry reading of 89%
• B. Crackles at the base of the lungs on auscultation
• C. Rapid shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes
• D. Excessive thirst with a dry cracked tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rapid, shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes are concerning as they indicate a potential worsening of the client's asthma. This finding suggests airway narrowing, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is required to address this respiratory distress. A pulse oximetry reading of 89% is low and indicates hypoxemia, but the respiratory pattern described in option C takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status. Crackles at the base of the lungs suggest fluid accumulation, which is important but not as immediately critical as the respiratory distress in asthma. Excessive thirst and a dry cracked tongue may indicate dehydration, which is relevant but not as urgent as the respiratory compromise presented in option C.

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