Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements can motivate a couple to practice family planning?

• A. Family planning helps families improve their standard of living.
• B. Family planning reduces or eliminates fear of unwanted pregnancies.
• C. Family planning affords family members time to study or pursue personal interests.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the listed statements provide valid reasons to motivate couples to practice family planning. Option A highlights how family planning can lead to an improvement in the standard of living by allowing families to better manage their resources. Option B emphasizes the importance of family planning in reducing or eliminating the fear of unwanted pregnancies, which can have significant emotional and financial implications for couples. Option C points out that family planning can also afford family members time to focus on personal development, such as studying or pursuing personal interests, without the added responsibilities of unplanned pregnancies. Therefore, all these factors combined can serve as strong motivators for couples to consider and practice family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them individually provides a valid reason to motivate couples, making the comprehensive answer D the most appropriate.

2. The healthcare provider is screening children at a local community health clinic for infectious diseases. Which child is at the highest risk for hepatitis B virus?

• A. a newborn
• B. a 3-year-old
• C. a 7-year-old
• D. an 11-year-old

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Newborns are at the highest risk for hepatitis B virus due to potential transmission from the mother. The hepatitis B virus can be transmitted from an infected mother to her baby during childbirth. Children born to mothers infected with hepatitis B are at the highest risk of acquiring the infection. Choices B, C, and D are at lower risk compared to a newborn as they are less likely to have been exposed to the virus during childbirth.

3. A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Tendonitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause tendonitis and an increased risk of tendon rupture. Monitoring for tendonitis is crucial as it can lead to significant musculoskeletal issues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use.

4. The community health nurse has been following the care for an adolescent with a history of morbid obesity, asthma, hypertension, and is 22 weeks into a pregnancy. Which of these lab reports sent to the clinic needs to be called to the teen's healthcare provider within the next hour?

• A. Hemoglobin 11 g/dL and calcium 6 mg/dL
• B. Magnesium 0.8 mEq/L and creatinine 3 mg/dL
• C. Blood urea nitrogen 28 mg/dL and glucose 225 mg/dL
• D. Hematocrit 33% and platelets 200,000

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The low magnesium level and elevated creatinine suggest possible renal dysfunction, which is concerning, especially in a pregnant client with multiple risk factors such as morbid obesity, asthma, and hypertension. Immediate attention is needed to address the potential renal issues. The other choices do not indicate such urgent conditions. Hemoglobin and calcium levels in choice A are within acceptable ranges. Choice C shows elevated blood urea nitrogen and glucose levels, which may need monitoring but not immediate attention. Choice D's hematocrit and platelet levels are also within normal ranges and do not indicate an urgent issue.

5. A client is suspected of being poisoned and presents with symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth. The nurse should consider these findings consistent with which potential bioterrorism agent?

• A. ricin
• B. botulism toxin
• C. sulfur mustard
• D. yersinia pestis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: botulism toxin. Botulism toxin is associated with symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth, which are consistent with the client's presentation. Ricin (Choice A) typically presents with gastrointestinal symptoms. Sulfur mustard (Choice C) is a blistering agent causing skin, eye, and respiratory issues. Yersinia pestis (Choice D) is associated with the bubonic plague, presenting with fever, malaise, and buboes.

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