HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank
1. Which of the following statements can motivate a couple to practice family planning?
- A. Family planning helps families improve their standard of living.
- B. Family planning reduces or eliminates fear of unwanted pregnancies.
- C. Family planning affords family members time to study or pursue personal interests.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the listed statements provide valid reasons to motivate couples to practice family planning. Option A highlights how family planning can lead to an improvement in the standard of living by allowing families to better manage their resources. Option B emphasizes the importance of family planning in reducing or eliminating the fear of unwanted pregnancies, which can have significant emotional and financial implications for couples. Option C points out that family planning can also afford family members time to focus on personal development, such as studying or pursuing personal interests, without the added responsibilities of unplanned pregnancies. Therefore, all these factors combined can serve as strong motivators for couples to consider and practice family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them individually provides a valid reason to motivate couples, making the comprehensive answer D the most appropriate.
2. How should the healthcare provider schedule the administering of propylthiouracil (PTU)?
- A. Offer both drugs together with a meal
- B. Give parental dose once every 24 hours
- C. Schedule both medications at bedtime
- D. Administer iodine one hour before PTU
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering iodine one hour before PTU is crucial to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness of PTU. This timing helps optimize the therapeutic benefits of PTU by allowing it to be absorbed efficiently without interference from iodine, ultimately leading to better treatment outcomes for the patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because offering both drugs together with a meal, giving parental dose once every 24 hours, and scheduling both medications at bedtime do not address the specific timing requirement of administering iodine before PTU for optimal absorption.
3. When caring for a client with Cushing syndrome, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Lactate
- B. Glucose
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. Creatinine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a client with Cushing syndrome, monitoring glucose levels is crucial as Cushing syndrome often leads to hyperglycemia. Elevated glucose levels are a common manifestation of Cushing syndrome due to increased cortisol levels. Monitoring glucose helps in assessing and managing the client's condition effectively. Lactate levels are not typically affected by Cushing syndrome. Hemoglobin and creatinine levels are important for other conditions like anemia and kidney function, but they are not the priority in Cushing syndrome.
4. A female client with bulimia nervosa is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Allow the client to eat meals alone to reduce stress.
- B. Observe the client for 30 minutes after meals.
- C. Provide the client with a high-calorie diet.
- D. Encourage the client to weigh herself daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with bulimia nervosa is to observe the client for 30 minutes after meals. This helps prevent purging behaviors, such as vomiting or using laxatives, which are common in bulimia nervosa. Choice A is incorrect because eating meals alone may enable the client to engage in purging behaviors without being observed. Choice C is incorrect as a high-calorie diet may exacerbate the client's concerns about weight gain. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging daily weigh-ins can reinforce obsessive thoughts about weight and body image.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?
- A. Elevated AST and ALT
- B. Decreased albumin level
- C. Elevated bilirubin level
- D. Prolonged PT/INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, prolonged PT/INR. In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This indicates impaired liver function, leading to a higher risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT (choice A) are indicators of liver damage but do not directly assess the risk of bleeding. Decreased albumin level (choice B) reflects impaired liver function but is not as directly related to bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR. Elevated bilirubin level (choice C) is a sign of liver dysfunction, specifically related to bile metabolism, and while important, it is not as directly associated with bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR in the context of chronic liver disease.