Nursing Elites

1. A confused client has been placed in physical restraints by order of the healthcare provider. Which task could be assigned to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

• A. Assist the client with activities of daily living
• B. Monitor the client's physical safety
• C. Evaluate for basic comfort needs
• D. Document mental status and muscle strength

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Assist the client with activities of daily living.' Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) can help clients with activities of daily living, such as feeding, bathing, and dressing. This task is appropriate for UAP as it does not require professional judgment. Choices B, C, and D involve monitoring safety, evaluating needs, and documenting assessments, which require a licensed nurse's professional judgment and expertise.

2. A nurse working in the community assumes different roles. When the nurse acts as a community organizer, they perform which of the following functions?

• A. motivate and enhance community participation when planning and implementing health programs and services
• B. develop the family's capability to take care of a sick member
• C. identify needs, priorities, and problems of individuals, families, and the community
• D. participate in community development activities

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a nurse acts as a community organizer, they participate in community development activities, which involve working with the community to address issues such as healthcare access, social services, and infrastructure. The other choices do not directly align with the role of a community organizer. Choice A is more related to community participation in health programs, choice B focuses on family care, and choice C pertains to identifying needs and priorities rather than organizing community development activities.

3. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Constipation
• B. Hypertension
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.

4. Tertiary prevention would best be described as:

• A. recovery from physical limitation and psychological regression
• B. health teaching and immunization
• C. rehabilitation of alcoholic and drug dependents
• D. preventing disability and maximum use of remaining capacity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tertiary prevention is the stage of prevention that aims at preventing disability and maximizing the use of remaining capacity. Choice A is more aligned with rehabilitation rather than tertiary prevention. Choice B refers to primary prevention by promoting health and preventing diseases. Choice C focuses on rehabilitation specific to alcohol and drug dependence, which is a form of secondary prevention, not tertiary prevention.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with portal hypertension. Which of the following findings would the nurse expect?

• A. Expiratory wheezes
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Ascites
• D. Dilated pupils

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ascites is a common finding in clients with portal hypertension. Portal hypertension results in increased pressure in the portal vein, leading to the development of ascites, which is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity. Expiratory wheezes (Choice A) are associated with respiratory conditions. Blurred vision (Choice B) is more commonly linked to eye disorders or neurological issues. Dilated pupils (Choice D) can be related to neurological conditions or drug effects, but not specifically to portal hypertension.

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