HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Exam
1. A confused client has been placed in physical restraints by order of the healthcare provider. Which task could be assigned to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
- A. Assist the client with activities of daily living
- B. Monitor the client's physical safety
- C. Evaluate for basic comfort needs
- D. Document mental status and muscle strength
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Assist the client with activities of daily living.' Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) can help clients with activities of daily living, such as feeding, bathing, and dressing. This task is appropriate for UAP as it does not require professional judgment. Choices B, C, and D involve monitoring safety, evaluating needs, and documenting assessments, which require a licensed nurse's professional judgment and expertise.
2. The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would be most effective in removing respiratory secretions?
- A. Administration of cough suppressants
- B. Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day
- C. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges
- D. Performing chest physiotherapy twice a day
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day is the most effective in removing respiratory secretions in a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps thin secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Administration of cough suppressants (Choice A) may hinder the removal of secretions by suppressing the cough reflex. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the removal of respiratory secretions. Performing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) is beneficial for mobilizing secretions but may not be as effective as increasing fluid intake in thinning and facilitating the removal of secretions.
3. When asked to help develop interventions to combat obesity among children, the community health nurse should stress the importance of implementing which activity?
- A. Set goals that are focused on developing healthier lifestyles.
- B. Develop strict diet plans for school-aged children.
- C. Provide diet classes for obese children during school hours.
- D. Require all children to participate in organized team sports.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Setting goals that are focused on developing healthier lifestyles. This approach is essential in combating childhood obesity as it promotes sustainable habits and behaviors. Option B, developing strict diet plans, may not be effective in the long term and could lead to unhealthy relationships with food. Option C, providing diet classes during school hours, may not address the root causes of obesity and could potentially stigmatize the children. Option D, requiring all children to participate in organized team sports, may not be feasible for all children and might not address dietary habits and sedentary behaviors.
4. As the immediate supervisor of the Rural Health Midwives, the PHN prepares a supervisory plan. Which of the following would be the PHN's activity?
- A. performing needs assessment
- B. listing supervisory activities
- C. identifying the training needs
- D. formulating objectives for supervision
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: listing supervisory activities. When preparing a supervisory plan, the Public Health Nurse (PHN) needs to list the specific supervisory activities that need to be carried out. This helps in organizing and outlining the tasks that need to be accomplished to ensure effective supervision. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although needs assessment, identifying training needs, and formulating objectives are important aspects of supervisory planning, they are not specifically related to the act of preparing a detailed list of supervisory activities.
5. During the care of a client with Legionnaire's disease, which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?
- A. Pleuritic pain on inspiration
- B. Dry mucus membranes in the mouth
- C. A decrease in respiratory rate from 34 to 24
- D. Decrease in chest wall expansion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A decrease in chest wall expansion suggests that the client may be experiencing a serious complication, such as worsening pneumonia or respiratory failure, requiring immediate medical attention. This finding indicates a potential decrease in lung function, which could lead to respiratory distress. Pleuritic pain on inspiration may be related to the disease process but does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Dry mucus membranes in the mouth may require attention but are not as critical as a decrease in chest wall expansion. A decrease in respiratory rate could be concerning but is not as urgent as a decrease in chest wall expansion, which directly impacts respiratory function.
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