a confused client has been placed in physical restraints by order of the healthcare provider which task could be assigned to an unlicensed assistive p
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Exam

1. A confused client has been placed in physical restraints by order of the healthcare provider. Which task could be assigned to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Assist the client with activities of daily living.' Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) can help clients with activities of daily living, such as feeding, bathing, and dressing. This task is appropriate for UAP as it does not require professional judgment. Choices B, C, and D involve monitoring safety, evaluating needs, and documenting assessments, which require a licensed nurse's professional judgment and expertise.

2. The organization of nurses employed in the DOH is the:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Philippine Nurses Association is the correct organization for nurses employed in the DOH. The Philippine Nurses Association is a professional organization that represents and serves the interests of Filipino nurses. The National League of Nurses focuses on nursing education and is not specific to nurses employed in the DOH. The Catholic Nurses Guild of the Philippines is a religious organization for Catholic nurses and is not directly linked to nurses employed in the DOH. MCNAP is not a known organization related to nursing in the context provided.

3. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperglycemia. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) contains a high glucose content, which can lead to elevated blood sugar levels, resulting in hyperglycemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial in clients receiving TPN to prevent complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because TPN is more likely to cause hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, or hyponatremia.

4. An example of secondary prevention strategy would be:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Screening for breast cancer is a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection, which falls under secondary prevention as it focuses on early identification and intervention before the disease progresses. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to palliative care for symptom management in terminal cancer patients, which is not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice C is incorrect as educating teenagers about condom use is a primary prevention strategy to prevent the initial occurrence of STDs rather than intervening after exposure, making it a primary, not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice D is incorrect as there is a valid example of a secondary prevention strategy provided in choice A.

5. In providing comprehensive family health care, the nurse utilizes four (4) basic processes. These are listed in the order in which they are carried out as follows:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order for the basic processes in providing comprehensive family health care is assessment, planning, intervention, and evaluation. Assessment is the first step to gather information, followed by planning to set goals and strategies, then intervention to implement the plan, and finally evaluation to assess the outcomes. Choice A is correct as it follows this logical sequence. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the correct order of these essential processes in nursing care.

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