HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Exam
1. A confused client has been placed in physical restraints by order of the healthcare provider. Which task could be assigned to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
- A. Assist the client with activities of daily living
- B. Monitor the client's physical safety
- C. Evaluate for basic comfort needs
- D. Document mental status and muscle strength
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Assist the client with activities of daily living.' Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) can help clients with activities of daily living, such as feeding, bathing, and dressing. This task is appropriate for UAP as it does not require professional judgment. Choices B, C, and D involve monitoring safety, evaluating needs, and documenting assessments, which require a licensed nurse's professional judgment and expertise.
2. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the CDC?
- A. 13-18 years of age
- B. 11-12 years of age
- C. 18-24 months of age
- D. 4-6 years of age
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. The CDC recommends administering the MMR booster to children aged 4 to 6 years. This booster dose is essential to ensure continued immunity against measles, mumps, and rubella. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the CDC guidelines for the age range of MMR booster administration.
3. What does the acronym ICD stand for in medical terminology?
- A. International Classification of Diseases
- B. Internal Care Documentation
- C. Intensive Care Division
- D. Integrated Care Department
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Classification of Diseases. The ICD is a system used worldwide to classify and code various health conditions and diseases. This system helps in standardizing the documentation and coding of diseases, which is essential for epidemiology, research, and healthcare management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the widely recognized meaning of the acronym ICD in medical terminology.
4. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?
- A. Auditory gurgling
- B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
- C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
- D. Frequent dry coughing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.
5. What is the process of enabling people to increase control over and improve their health known as?
- A. Health promotion
- B. Disease prevention
- C. Rehabilitation
- D. Health education
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Health promotion. Health promotion focuses on empowering individuals to take control of their health by promoting healthy behaviors, lifestyles, and environments. It aims to prevent illnesses and enhance overall well-being. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not fully encompass the concept of empowering individuals to improve their health. Disease prevention specifically targets avoiding specific illnesses, rehabilitation focuses on restoring health after an illness or injury, and health education primarily involves imparting knowledge about health-related topics.
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