HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Exam
1. A confused client has been placed in physical restraints by order of the healthcare provider. Which task could be assigned to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
- A. Assist the client with activities of daily living
- B. Monitor the client's physical safety
- C. Evaluate for basic comfort needs
- D. Document mental status and muscle strength
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Assist the client with activities of daily living.' Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) can help clients with activities of daily living, such as feeding, bathing, and dressing. This task is appropriate for UAP as it does not require professional judgment. Choices B, C, and D involve monitoring safety, evaluating needs, and documenting assessments, which require a licensed nurse's professional judgment and expertise.
2. Occupational health nursing is concerned with the following except:
- A. educating workers about health
- B. immediate diagnosis of illness prevailing in the work field
- C. appropriate and effective ways of promoting health
- D. planning of administering health services
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Occupational health nursing focuses on educating workers about health, promoting health through appropriate and effective ways, and planning and administering health services in the workplace. Immediate diagnosis of illness prevailing in the work field is typically not the primary role of occupational health nursing, as it usually involves prevention, education, and health promotion rather than diagnosing acute conditions.
3. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Constipation
- B. Hypertension
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.
4. When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of regular health screenings, this activity falls under which level of prevention?
- A. Primary prevention
- B. Secondary prevention
- C. Tertiary prevention
- D. Quaternary prevention
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease early to prevent complications. Teaching about the importance of regular health screenings helps in early detection and intervention, which aligns with the goals of secondary prevention. Choice A, Primary prevention, involves actions to prevent the onset of a health condition. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing conditions to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid unnecessary interventions, over-medicalization, and the consequences of unnecessary treatment.
5. A client with schizophrenia is receiving haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Extrapyramidal symptoms
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Extrapyramidal symptoms. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms such as tardive dyskinesia and akathisia. These side effects are common with the use of typical antipsychotics. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common side effect of haloperidol. Choice B, Hypotension, is also not a typical side effect associated with haloperidol use. Choice D, Hyperglycemia, is not directly linked to haloperidol administration, as it is more commonly associated with other medications like atypical antipsychotics or certain medical conditions.
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