Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. White blood cell count (WBC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.

2. Which topic should the nurse include in planning a primary prevention class for adolescents?

• A. Risk factors for heart disease.
• B. Dietary management of obesity.
• C. Suicide risks and prevention.
• D. Coping with stressful situations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct topic that the nurse should include in planning a primary prevention class for adolescents is suicide risks and prevention. Adolescents are particularly vulnerable to mental health issues, including suicidal ideation. Educating them about suicide risks and prevention strategies is crucial for early intervention and support. Choices A, B, and D are important topics, but when considering primary prevention for adolescents, addressing suicide risks and prevention takes precedence due to its immediate life-saving implications.

3. In evaluating your client's level of wellness, which of the following indicators can you see?

• A. Appropriate nutritional level
• B. Sense of personal security
• C. Acceptance of oneself and one's limitations
• D. Maladaptations to one's environment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When evaluating a client's level of wellness, indicators such as appropriate nutritional level, sense of personal security, and acceptance of oneself and one's limitations are crucial. Option C, 'Acceptance of oneself and one's limitations,' directly relates to mental wellness and self-awareness, making it a key indicator of overall well-being. Options A, B, and D are not as directly tied to the psychological and emotional aspects of wellness, making them less relevant indicators in this context. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

4. Tertiary prevention would best be described as:

• A. recovery from physical limitation and psychological regression
• B. health teaching and immunization
• C. rehabilitation of alcoholic and drug dependents
• D. preventing disability and maximum use of remaining capacity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tertiary prevention is the stage of prevention that aims at preventing disability and maximizing the use of remaining capacity. Choice A is more aligned with rehabilitation rather than tertiary prevention. Choice B refers to primary prevention by promoting health and preventing diseases. Choice C focuses on rehabilitation specific to alcohol and drug dependence, which is a form of secondary prevention, not tertiary prevention.

5. A client with asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Albuterol can cause tachycardia as a side effect due to its stimulant effect on the heart. It acts as a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, leading to increased heart rate. Hypoglycemia (choice A) is not a common side effect of albuterol. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is also not typically associated with albuterol use. Hypotension (choice D) is less likely to occur as albuterol usually causes tachycardia rather than hypotension.

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