HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. Which of the following is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?
- A. Using sterile gloves
- B. Wearing a face mask
- C. Performing hand hygiene
- D. Using disposable equipment
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Performing hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting. Hand hygiene helps remove pathogens that could be transmitted through direct contact, making it a crucial practice in infection control. While using sterile gloves and disposable equipment are important in certain situations, they do not address the potential transmission of pathogens through direct contact, unlike hand hygiene. Wearing a face mask is important for respiratory precautions but may not be as effective as hand hygiene in preventing the spread of infections through direct contact.
2. At the first dressing change, the PN tells the client that her mastectomy incision is healing well, but the client refuses to look at the incision and refuses to talk about it. Which response by the PN to the client's silence is best?
- A. You will feel better when you see that the incision is not as bad as you may think.
- B. It's OK if you don't want to look or talk about the mastectomy. I will be available when you're ready.
- C. Part of recovery is accepting your new body image, and you will need to look at your incision.
- D. Would you like me to call another nurse to be here while I show you the wound?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Acknowledging the client's feelings and providing emotional support without pressuring them to look at the incision is important. Choice B is the best response as it respects the client's emotional readiness to confront their body image changes. The client's autonomy and emotional needs are prioritized in this response. Choice A may invalidate the client's feelings by assuming the incision is not as bad as they think, potentially dismissing their emotions. Choice C is insensitive as it imposes a particular view of recovery on the client, disregarding their current emotional state. Choice D may escalate the situation by suggesting the need for another nurse, which could make the client feel uncomfortable and pressured.
3. The PN and UAP enter a client's room and find the client lying on the bed. The PN determines that the client is unresponsive. Which instruction should the PN give the UAP first?
- A. Obtain emergency help
- B. Feel for a carotid pulse
- C. Bring a glucometer to the room
- D. Check the blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the UAP to obtain emergency help first. When a client is unresponsive, it could indicate a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Ensuring emergency help is on the way is the priority to address the potentially critical situation. Feeling for a carotid pulse, bringing a glucometer, or checking the blood pressure are important assessments but should come after taking steps to secure immediate assistance.
4. While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?
- A. Prescription for lorazepam
- B. History of Parkinson's disease
- C. Screening for tardive dyskinesia
- D. Recent urine drug screen report
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.
5. What is the primary reason for applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) to a patient’s legs postoperatively?
- A. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
- B. To promote wound healing
- C. To reduce postoperative pain
- D. To maintain body temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are used postoperatively to prevent DVT by promoting blood circulation in the legs. This helps reduce the risk of blood clots forming in the deep veins of the legs. Choice B, to promote wound healing, is incorrect as SCDs are primarily used for circulatory purposes rather than wound healing. Choice C, to reduce postoperative pain, is incorrect as the primary purpose of SCDs is not pain management but rather prevention of DVT. Choice D, to maintain body temperature, is incorrect as SCDs are not designed for regulating body temperature but for preventing circulatory issues.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access