Nursing Elites

1. A client post-mastectomy is concerned about the risk of lymphedema. What should the nurse include in the discharge instructions to minimize this risk?

• A. Wear compression garments on the affected arm.
• B. Avoid venipunctures and blood pressure measurements on the affected arm.
• C. Perform vigorous exercises to strengthen the affected arm.
• D. Keep the affected arm elevated at all times.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To minimize the risk of lymphedema after a mastectomy, it is essential to instruct the client to avoid venipunctures and blood pressure measurements on the affected arm. These procedures can lead to trauma or impede lymphatic flow, increasing the risk of lymphedema. Wearing compression garments helps manage lymphedema but is not preventive. Performing vigorous exercises can strain the affected arm and increase the risk of lymphedema. Keeping the affected arm elevated at all times is unnecessary and not an effective preventive measure against lymphedema.

2. Which action should the PN implement when using standard precautions to provide client care?

• A. Apply sterile gloves to obtain a finger stick blood sample
• B. Wear clean exam gloves to perform perineal catheter care
• C. Replace the needle cap after giving an intramuscular injection
• D. Wear a paper gown to prevent transmission of droplet pathogens

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When using standard precautions, healthcare providers should wear clean exam gloves to perform perineal catheter care. This approach helps prevent the transmission of pathogens and ensures the safety of both the client and the healthcare provider. Choice A is incorrect because applying sterile gloves for a finger stick blood sample is unnecessary when non-sterile gloves would suffice. Choice C is incorrect because replacing the needle cap after giving an intramuscular injection is not directly related to standard precautions. Choice D is incorrect because wearing a paper gown is not a standard precaution for preventing the transmission of droplet pathogens.

3. A client who had a thyroidectomy 24 hours ago reports tingling around the mouth and in the fingertips. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check the client’s calcium levels.
• B. Administer a dose of calcium gluconate.
• C. Assess the client's incision site for bleeding.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tingling around the mouth and in the fingertips can indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication after thyroidectomy due to accidental damage to the parathyroid glands. Checking calcium levels is crucial as it helps in diagnosing hypocalcemia accurately. Administering calcium without knowing the actual calcium levels can be dangerous. Assessing the incision site for bleeding is important but not the priority in this situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after assessing and managing the immediate concern of hypocalcemia.

4. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?

• A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
• B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
• C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
• D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.

5. While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?

• A. Prescription for lorazepam
• B. History of Parkinson's disease
• C. Screening for tardive dyskinesia
• D. Recent urine drug screen report

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.

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