Nursing Elites

1. Which is the most important safety measure when administering a medication through a patient’s central venous catheter (CVC)?

• A. Using a sterile technique
• B. Ensuring correct placement of the CVC
• C. Flushing the CVC with saline after administration
• D. Monitoring for signs of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important safety measure when administering a medication through a patient’s central venous catheter (CVC) is ensuring the correct placement of the CVC. This is crucial to prevent complications such as extravasation, infection, or improper drug delivery. While using a sterile technique, flushing the CVC with saline after administration, and monitoring for signs of infection are all important aspects of CVC care, ensuring the correct placement of the catheter takes precedence as it directly impacts patient safety during medication administration.

2. Based on the computer documentation in the EMR, which action should the PN implement?

• A. Give the rubella vaccine subcutaneously
• B. Observe the mother breastfeeding her infant
• C. Call the nursery for the infant's blood type results
• D. Administer hydrocodone/acetaminophen one tablet for pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The rubella vaccine is crucial for preventing rubella infection, which can cause severe congenital disabilities if contracted during pregnancy. Administering the vaccine subcutaneously is the correct action based on EMR documentation. Observing breastfeeding, calling the nursery for blood type results, and administering pain medication are not indicated by the EMR documentation and are not relevant to the situation described in the question.

3. A post-operative client develops a sudden onset of chest pain and dyspnea. The nurse suspects a pulmonary embolism (PE). What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer oxygen via face mask.
• B. Elevate the client's legs.
• C. Prepare the client for immediate surgery.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen via face mask is the priority nursing action in a post-operative client suspected of a pulmonary embolism. This intervention helps ensure adequate oxygenation while further assessments and interventions are initiated. Elevating the client's legs is not indicated for a suspected pulmonary embolism; it is more appropriate for conditions like shock. Immediate surgery is not the priority in this situation as the client is experiencing acute symptoms requiring prompt intervention. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, the immediate focus should be on providing oxygen to the client to support respiratory function.

4. Based on the principle of asepsis, which situation should the nurse consider to be sterile?

• A. A one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room
• B. A sterile glove that the nurse thinks might have touched her hair
• C. A wrapped, unopened sterile 4x4 gauze pad placed on a damp tabletop
• D. An open sterile Foley catheter kit set up on a table at the nurse's waist level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an open sterile Foley catheter kit set up at waist level is considered sterile if it has not been contaminated. Choice A is incorrect because the one-inch border around a sterile field is considered non-sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a sterile glove that might have touched the nurse's hair is likely contaminated. Choice C is incorrect because a wrapped, unopened sterile gauze pad placed on a damp tabletop may have become contaminated.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.

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