HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. Which is the most important safety measure when administering a medication through a patient’s central venous catheter (CVC)?
- A. Using a sterile technique
- B. Ensuring correct placement of the CVC
- C. Flushing the CVC with saline after administration
- D. Monitoring for signs of infection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important safety measure when administering a medication through a patient’s central venous catheter (CVC) is ensuring the correct placement of the CVC. This is crucial to prevent complications such as extravasation, infection, or improper drug delivery. While using a sterile technique, flushing the CVC with saline after administration, and monitoring for signs of infection are all important aspects of CVC care, ensuring the correct placement of the catheter takes precedence as it directly impacts patient safety during medication administration.
2. Patients are coming into the emergency room as a result of an apartment house fire. You are examining a patient who is in distress but has no visible burn marks. You suspect that she is suffering from inhalation burns. Which of the following signs would NOT be associated with inhalation burns?
- A. Singed nasal hairs
- B. Conjunctivitis
- C. Hoarseness
- D. Clear sputum
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clear sputum would not be associated with inhalation burns. Inhalation burns typically present with symptoms like singed nasal hairs, conjunctivitis, hoarseness, and possibly soot in sputum due to smoke inhalation. Clear sputum suggests that there is no significant inflammation or injury to the respiratory tract, which is not consistent with the typical findings in inhalation burns. The other choices are associated with inhalation burns: singed nasal hairs can occur due to exposure to hot air or gases, conjunctivitis can result from irritating substances in smoke, and hoarseness can be due to airway irritation.
3. Which condition is characterized by a progressive loss of muscle strength due to an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors?
- A. Myasthenia gravis
- B. Multiple sclerosis
- C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
- D. Guillain-Barré syndrome
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Myasthenia gravis. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by muscle weakness caused by autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. This results in impaired communication between nerves and muscles. Choice B, Multiple sclerosis, is a condition where the immune system attacks the protective myelin sheath covering the nerves in the central nervous system, leading to communication issues between the brain and the rest of the body. Choice C, Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, is a progressive neurodegenerative disease affecting motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord, not involving acetylcholine receptors. Choice D, Guillain-Barré syndrome, is an acute condition where the immune system attacks the peripheral nerves, causing muscle weakness and paralysis, but it does not target acetylcholine receptors.
4. The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus how to differentiate between hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. What statement indicates to the nurse that the client has an understanding of this condition?
- A. Glucose should be taken if I have a fruity breath odor.
- B. Glucose should be taken if I am urinating more than usual.
- C. Glucose should be taken if I have blurred vision.
- D. Glucose should be taken if I develop shakiness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Shakiness is a symptom of hypoglycemia, which is low blood sugar. Taking glucose can help raise blood sugar levels quickly in this situation. Fruity breath odor and excessive urination are signs of ketoacidosis, a complication of diabetes involving high levels of ketones in the blood. Blurred vision can be a symptom of high blood sugar, but it is not specific to hypoglycemia.
5. What information should the PN collect during the admission assessment of a terminally ill client to an acute care facility?
- A. Name of the funeral home to contact
- B. Client's wishes regarding organ donation
- C. Contact information for the client's next of kin
- D. Health care proxy information
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Understanding the client's wishes regarding organ donation is crucial as it aligns with end-of-life care preferences and ensures that the client's decisions are respected. While obtaining the name of a funeral home (Choice A) may be necessary, it is not typically part of the initial admission assessment. Contact information for the client's next of kin (Choice C) is important for communication but may not be directly related to the client's immediate end-of-life wishes. Health care proxy information (Choice D) is vital for decision-making if the client becomes incapacitated but may not be the primary focus during the initial admission assessment.
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