Nursing Elites

1. Which is the most important safety measure when administering a medication through a patient’s central venous catheter (CVC)?

• A. Using a sterile technique
• B. Ensuring correct placement of the CVC
• C. Flushing the CVC with saline after administration
• D. Monitoring for signs of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important safety measure when administering a medication through a patient’s central venous catheter (CVC) is ensuring the correct placement of the CVC. This is crucial to prevent complications such as extravasation, infection, or improper drug delivery. While using a sterile technique, flushing the CVC with saline after administration, and monitoring for signs of infection are all important aspects of CVC care, ensuring the correct placement of the catheter takes precedence as it directly impacts patient safety during medication administration.

2. At the end of a 12-hour shift, the PN observes the urine in a client's drainage bag as seen in the picture. Which action should the PN take next?

• A. Offer to administer a prescribed PRN analgesic
• B. Obtain a finger stick capillary glucose level
• C. Determine if the client's bladder feels distended
• D. Note the most recent white blood cell count

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Noting the white blood cell count is the most appropriate action in this situation. Changes in urine appearance could indicate infection, and assessing the white blood cell count helps in evaluating the possibility of infection. This is crucial for understanding the client's overall condition. The other options are not directly related to assessing infection based on urine appearance. Offering analgesics, checking glucose levels, or determining bladder distention may not address the underlying issue of a potential infection.

3. The PN identifies an electrolyte imbalance, exhibited by changes in mental status, and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart disease. Which intervention should the PN implement first?

• A. Record usual eating patterns
• B. Evaluate for muscle cramping
• C. Document abdominal girth
• D. Elevate both legs on pillows

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating for muscle cramping, which is a sign of electrolyte imbalance, is crucial in this scenario. Electrolyte imbalances, especially involving potassium or calcium, can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or seizures, which need immediate attention. Recording eating patterns (choice A) may be important for overall assessment but is not the priority in this situation. Documenting abdominal girth (choice C) and elevating legs on pillows (choice D) are not directly related to addressing the immediate concern of electrolyte imbalance and its potential complications.

4. A nurse who receives a patient in the operative suite prior to the actual surgery is in charge of the patient’s care. Which of the following is NOT a task related to the nurse’s intraoperative care?

• A. Go over the surgical procedure with the patient before he or she is anesthetized
• B. Strictly adhere to asepsis during all intraoperative procedures
• C. Provide emotional support to the patient and their family
• D. Monitor the patient’s physical status

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Going over the surgical procedure with the patient is typically done preoperatively, not intraoperatively. Intraoperative tasks of a nurse involve strictly adhering to asepsis during procedures, monitoring the patient's physical status, and providing emotional support to the patient and their family during the surgery. Choices B, C, and D are all tasks that are directly related to the nurse's responsibilities during the intraoperative phase of care.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.

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