a nurse is assessing a day old infant for jaundice which of the following is the best method for this
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse is assessing a day-old infant for jaundice. Which of the following is the best method for this?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Applying pressure over a bony area and evaluating the skin color after the pressure is removed is the most accurate method for assessing jaundice in a day-old infant. This technique helps in identifying any yellowing of the skin, which is a key indicator of jaundice. Choices B, C, and D are less effective methods for assessing jaundice in a newborn. Assessing the color of the hands and feet may not give a reliable indication of jaundice, while evaluating the tongue, arms, and legs are not as specific or accurate as applying pressure over a bony area.

2. What is the primary cause of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insulin deficiency. Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs due to a severe lack of insulin, causing the body to break down fat for energy, leading to the production of ketones and acidification of the blood. Option B, Overhydration, is incorrect as DKA is characterized by dehydration rather than overhydration. Option C, Excess carbohydrate intake, is incorrect because while high blood sugar levels can contribute to DKA, the primary cause is insulin deficiency. Option D, Excess insulin, is also incorrect as DKA is not caused by an excess of insulin but rather by a lack of it.

3. How does the home care nurse determine that a 78-year-old client is unable to remain in his current residence alone?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the home environment. This process is vital in evaluating whether an elderly client can safely live independently. Factors like safety hazards and the client's ability to handle daily activities are considered during this assessment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because determining the client's ability to remain in his residence alone relies more on evaluating the home environment for safety and suitability rather than the client's goals, learning level, or distractions in the home.

4. A client who is post-operative from a carotid endarterectomy is experiencing difficulty swallowing. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client’s airway and respiratory status (Choice B). Difficulty swallowing after carotid endarterectomy could indicate swelling or nerve damage affecting swallowing, which may compromise the airway. Assessing the airway and respiratory status is crucial to ensure the client's ability to breathe. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not the priority as the primary concern is airway patency. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) can help with swallowing difficulties but does not address the immediate risk to the airway. Encouraging the client to take small sips of water (Choice D) is contraindicated if there is a risk of compromised airway due to swallowing difficulties.

5. A client who is post-operative from a spinal fusion surgery reports a sudden onset of severe headache when sitting up. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider. A severe headache in a post-operative spinal fusion patient can indicate a spinal fluid leak, which is a medical emergency. By laying the client flat, the nurse helps reduce symptoms by decreasing pressure differentials. Administering pain medication without further assessment or intervention is inappropriate before identifying the cause of the headache. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids is not the priority when a serious complication like a spinal fluid leak is suspected. While assessing the surgical site is important, it is not the priority when a potentially life-threatening complication is suspected.

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