Nursing Elites

1. Based on the computer documentation in the EMR, which action should the PN implement?

• A. Give the rubella vaccine subcutaneously
• B. Observe the mother breastfeeding her infant
• C. Call the nursery for the infant's blood type results
• D. Administer hydrocodone/acetaminophen one tablet for pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The rubella vaccine is crucial for preventing rubella infection, which can cause severe congenital disabilities if contracted during pregnancy. Administering the vaccine subcutaneously is the correct action based on EMR documentation. Observing breastfeeding, calling the nursery for blood type results, and administering pain medication are not indicated by the EMR documentation and are not relevant to the situation described in the question.

2. Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with mood regulation and is targeted by antidepressants?

• A. Serotonin
• B. Dopamine
• C. GABA
• D. Acetylcholine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin. Serotonin plays a vital role in mood regulation, and its imbalance is often associated with depression. Many antidepressants function by boosting serotonin levels in the brain. Dopamine (Choice B) is more linked to reward and pleasure pathways in the brain, not primarily targeted for mood regulation. GABA (Choice C) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that helps reduce neuronal excitability, not primarily associated with mood regulation. Acetylcholine (Choice D) is involved in muscle movement and cognitive functions, not the primary target of antidepressants for mood regulation.

3. After spinal fusion surgery, a client reports numbness and tingling in the legs. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Assess the client’s neurovascular status in the lower extremities.
• B. Reposition the client to relieve pressure on the spine.
• C. Administer prescribed pain medication.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After spinal fusion surgery, numbness and tingling in the legs may indicate nerve compression or damage. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client’s neurovascular status in the lower extremities. This assessment will help determine the cause and severity of the symptoms, guiding further interventions. Repositioning the client may be necessary for comfort, but assessing neurovascular status is the initial step. Administering pain medication should only follow the assessment to address any discomfort. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately is not the first action unless there are emergent signs requiring urgent intervention.

4. The home health PN suspects elder abuse after observing fresh lacerations on the arms and legs of an older adult male client who lives with his daughter. Which action is most important for the PN to take?

• A. Document the lacerations in the client's record
• B. Report findings to the supervisor for referral to adult protective services
• C. Ask the daughter who has been taking care of the client on a daily basis
• D. Apply dry dressings after cleansing the wounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important action for the PN to take in this situation is to report the findings to the supervisor for referral to adult protective services. Suspected elder abuse must be reported promptly to ensure the safety and protection of the client. Documenting the lacerations in the client's record is important but not as critical as reporting the suspected abuse. Asking the daughter who is the potential abuser may not yield accurate information and could compromise the safety of the client. Applying dressings to the wounds is a lower priority compared to addressing the suspected elder abuse.

5. While conducting a mental status examination of a newly admitted male client, the PN notes that his head is lowered, and he shows no emotion or expression when speaking. Based on these observations, what documentation should the PN include?

• A. Impaired verbalization
• B. Depressed mood
• C. Flat affect
• D. Diminished LOC

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Flat affect.' Flat affect refers to a lack of emotional expression, which the PN observed in the client. This observation is significant as it can provide valuable information for the client's mental health assessment and subsequent care planning. Choice A, 'Impaired verbalization,' does not capture the lack of emotional expression seen in the client. Choice B, 'Depressed mood,' may not accurately reflect the observed behavior of the client. Choice D, 'Diminished LOC,' pertains to the level of consciousness, which was not indicated as being a concern in the scenario provided.

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