which of the following is an example of a social determinant of health
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Community Health HESI Study Guide

1. Which of the following is an example of a social determinant of health?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Housing conditions. Social determinants of health are the conditions in which people are born, grow, live, work, and age. Housing conditions directly impact health outcomes as they can affect exposure to toxins, safety, and overall well-being. Choice A, blood pressure, is a physiological measure and not a social determinant. Choice B, genetic mutations, relates to an individual's genetic makeup and is not influenced by social factors. Choice D, age, is a demographic factor and not a social determinant of health.

2. The Healthy People project is designed to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Healthy People project is designed to follow health indicators such as activity, substance use, mental health, and environmental issues to improve public health outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because the project focuses on public health indicators rather than insurance liabilities. Choice B is incorrect as the project actually acknowledges the significant impact of social factors on health. Choice D is incorrect because one of the main goals of the Healthy People project is to identify and address disparities in access to healthcare, not to demonstrate that access is adequate for all populations.

3. Which of the following activities is an example of tertiary prevention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, physical therapy. Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and treatment to prevent complications from a disease or injury. Physical therapy falls under this category as it helps individuals recover and improve functionality after an illness or injury. Choices A, B, and C are not examples of tertiary prevention. Health education (choice A) is more aligned with primary prevention by promoting healthy behaviors to prevent disease onset. Regular exercise (choice B) can be categorized under both primary and secondary prevention as it aims to prevent disease development and detect conditions early. Screening tests (choice C) are part of secondary prevention as they aim to detect diseases at an early stage for prompt treatment.

4. A client was re-admitted to the hospital following a recent skull fracture. Which finding requires the nurse's immediate attention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lethargy is a critical finding that requires the nurse's immediate attention when a client with a recent skull fracture is readmitted to the hospital. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or other serious complications such as hemorrhage or infection. Addressing lethargy promptly is crucial to prevent further deterioration. Agitation, ataxia, and hearing loss are important to assess but do not signify the same level of urgency as lethargy in this context.

5. What title should be given to this professional role in occupational health? A registered nurse who develops researchable questions, conducts research, and communicates the findings to occupational and environmental health professionals, other peers, and the public.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: researcher.' In this context, the individual is primarily involved in developing research questions, conducting research, and disseminating findings, which aligns with the responsibilities of a researcher. Choice 'A: manager' is incorrect because the role described does not primarily involve managerial duties. Choice 'C: clinician/practitioner' is also incorrect as the focus is on research activities rather than direct clinical practice. Choice 'D: health promotion specialist' does not encompass the full scope of responsibilities described in the scenario.

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