joseph 45 years of age a community resident of barangay 22 a suddenly had 2 bouts of soft to almost watery stools after having taken his lunch while o
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Study Guide

1. Joseph, 45 years of age, a community resident of Barangay 22-A, suddenly had 2 bouts of soft to almost watery stools after having taken his lunch. While observing his condition further at home and later deciding whether to refer him for medical treatment, you recommended that he boil a decoction for 15 minutes at low fire using 10-15 leaves of which medicinal plant?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Bayabas (guava) leaves. Guava leaves are known for their anti-diarrheal properties, which can help alleviate Joseph's condition. Pancit pacitan, Sambong, and Lagundi are not commonly used for treating diarrhea and do not possess the same anti-diarrheal properties as guava leaves.

2. A client with asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Albuterol can cause tachycardia as a side effect due to its stimulant effect on the heart. It acts as a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, leading to increased heart rate. Hypoglycemia (choice A) is not a common side effect of albuterol. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is also not typically associated with albuterol use. Hypotension (choice D) is less likely to occur as albuterol usually causes tachycardia rather than hypotension.

3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). The client is complaining of chest pain. The nurse knows that pain related to an MI is due to

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insufficient oxygenation of the cardiac muscle. Myocardial infarction pain is primarily caused by inadequate oxygen reaching the heart muscle, leading to ischemia and tissue damage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because circulatory overload, left ventricular overload, and electrolyte imbalance are not the primary causes of chest pain in myocardial infarction. Circulatory overload may lead to other symptoms like edema, left ventricular overload can result in heart failure symptoms, and electrolyte imbalance may present with various manifestations, but none of these directly cause the characteristic chest pain associated with an MI.

4. When the nurse identifies what appears to be ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor of a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction, the first action the nurse should perform is to

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when identifying what appears to be ventricular tachycardia in a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction is to assess the client's airway, breathing, and circulation. This step is crucial to determine the client's stability and the need for immediate intervention. Beginning cardiopulmonary resuscitation or preparing for immediate defibrillation without first assessing the airway, breathing, and circulation could delay potentially life-saving interventions. Notifying the 'Code' team and healthcare provider should come after ensuring the client's immediate needs are addressed.

5. An infant weighed 7 pounds 8 ounces at birth. If growth occurs at a normal rate, what would be the expected weight at 6 months of age?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Double the birth weight.' Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months of age. This is a common milestone in healthy infant growth and development. Choice B is incorrect because tripling the birth weight would be excessive and not in line with normal growth patterns. Choice C, 'Gain 6 ounces each week,' is not accurate as infant growth is not linear each week. Choice D, 'Add 2 pounds each month,' is also incorrect as this rate of growth would be too rapid and unrealistic for healthy infant development.

Similar Questions

A client with a history of seizures is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
Which individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia?
Which of the following is used to monitor specific groups eligible for a particular DOH program?
A female client diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV 2) complains of dysuria, dyspareunia, leukorrhea, and lesions on the labia and perianal skin. A primary nursing action with the focus of comfort should be to
A newborn presents with a pronounced cephalic hematoma following a birth in the posterior position. Which nursing diagnosis should guide the plan of care?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses