Nursing Elites

1. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperglycemia. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) contains a high glucose content, which can lead to elevated blood sugar levels, resulting in hyperglycemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial in clients receiving TPN to prevent complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because TPN is more likely to cause hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, or hyponatremia.

2. A female client diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV 2) complains of dysuria, dyspareunia, leukorrhea, and lesions on the labia and perianal skin. A primary nursing action with the focus of comfort should be to

• A. Suggest 3 to 4 warm sitz baths per day
• B. Cleanse the genitalia twice a day with soap and water
• C. Spray warm water over genitalia after urination
• D. Apply heat or cold to lesions as desired

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to suggest 3 to 4 warm sitz baths per day. Warm sitz baths can soothe the irritated genital area, reduce pain, and promote healing of the lesions associated with genital herpes. Cleansing the genitalia with soap and water or spraying warm water over the genitalia after urination may further irritate the lesions. Applying heat or cold to lesions as desired may not provide the same level of comfort and healing as warm sitz baths.

3. Which presentation of an infectious disease is acquired through an indirect transmission?

• A. Syphilis contracted from a sexual partner.
• B. Measles resulting from a daycare center outbreak.
• C. Malaria following exposure in a mosquito-infested area.
• D. Nosocomial influenza spreading rapidly in a long-term care center.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Malaria is transmitted indirectly through mosquito bites. Choice A is incorrect as syphilis is acquired through direct contact with an infected sexual partner. Choice B is incorrect as measles can be transmitted through respiratory droplets in close contact settings like daycare centers. Choice D is incorrect as nosocomial influenza spreads within healthcare facilities through direct contact or droplets.

4. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

• A. Auditory gurgling
• B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
• C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
• D. Frequent dry coughing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

5. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following lab values would be consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Low serum albumin
• B. High serum cholesterol
• C. Abnormally low white blood cell count
• D. Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK). Elevated CPK levels indicate muscle damage, including damage to the cardiac muscle, which aligns with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Choice A, low serum albumin, is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Choice B, high serum cholesterol, is more associated with conditions like atherosclerosis rather than acute myocardial infarction. Choice C, abnormally low white blood cell count, is typically not a lab value associated with myocardial infarction; instead, it could suggest other conditions like infections or bone marrow issues.

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