Nursing Elites

1. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperglycemia. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) contains a high glucose content, which can lead to elevated blood sugar levels, resulting in hyperglycemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial in clients receiving TPN to prevent complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because TPN is more likely to cause hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, or hyponatremia.

2. Which of the following tools is used by community health nurses to identify the health needs of a population?

• A. Health survey
• B. Medical records
• C. Patient interviews
• D. Epidemiological studies

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Epidemiological studies are used by community health nurses to identify the health needs of a population. These studies involve investigating patterns, causes, and effects of health and disease conditions in defined populations. While health surveys, medical records, and patient interviews are valuable tools in healthcare, epidemiological studies provide a broader population-based perspective essential for understanding and addressing community health needs.

3. In planning the use of resources for secondary prevention in a community clinic serving migrant families, which activity should be the priority?

• A. Skin testing for tuberculosis.
• B. Glucose monitoring for diabetes.
• C. Blood work for cardiovascular disease.
• D. Height and weight for altered nutrition.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Skin testing for tuberculosis. In a community clinic serving migrant families, tuberculosis is a significant health concern due to close living conditions and potential exposure during migration. Skin testing for tuberculosis is crucial for secondary prevention as it helps in early detection and prevention of the spread of the disease within the community. Choices B, C, and D are important health screenings but may not be the priority in this specific population where tuberculosis poses a higher risk.

4. Which facilities are capable of performing minor surgeries and some simple laboratory examinations?

• A. Secondary level health care
• B. Intermediate level care
• C. Tertiary level care
• D. Primary health care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Secondary level health care facilities are equipped to perform minor surgeries and simple laboratory examinations. Intermediate level care (choice B) refers to a level of care between primary and secondary care, focusing on more complex procedures than minor surgeries. Tertiary level care (choice C) is specialized care that includes services like cardiac surgery and neurosurgery. Primary health care (choice D) is the first point of contact for individuals and is not typically equipped for minor surgeries or complex laboratory tests.

5. A 16-year-old female client returns to the clinic because she is pregnant for the third time by a new boyfriend. Which vaccine should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Measles-mumps-rubella.
• B. Hepatitis B.
• C. Human papillomavirus.
• D. Pneumococcal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hepatitis B. The Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for pregnant women as it helps prevent transmission of the virus to the baby during childbirth. Measles-mumps-rubella vaccine (choice A) is not directly related to the current situation of the client being pregnant. Human papillomavirus vaccine (choice C) is recommended for adolescents but is not specifically indicated in this case. Pneumococcal vaccine (choice D) is not a priority in this scenario compared to Hepatitis B, which is crucial for preventing vertical transmission.

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