a client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complicati
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Exam

1. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperglycemia. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) contains a high glucose content, which can lead to elevated blood sugar levels, resulting in hyperglycemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial in clients receiving TPN to prevent complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because TPN is more likely to cause hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, or hyponatremia.

2. The nurse is assigned to a client with Parkinson's disease. Which findings would the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Echolalia (repeating others' words) and a shuffling gait are common symptoms of Parkinson's disease. These symptoms result from the degeneration of the basal ganglia in the brain that controls movement and speech. Choice A is incorrect because non-intention tremors are not typically associated with Parkinson's disease. Choice C is incorrect as muscle spasm and a bent-over posture are not classic manifestations of Parkinson's disease. Choice D is incorrect since intention tremors and jerky movement of the elbows are not characteristic of Parkinson's disease.

3. The nurse is assigned to a newly delivered woman with HIV/AIDS. The student asks the nurse about how it is determined that a person has AIDS other than a positive HIV test. The nurse responds:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm³ is a diagnostic criterion for AIDS. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is vague and does not reflect the diagnostic criteria for AIDS. Choice B is not accurate, as the presence of opportunistic infections, not their absence, is indicative of AIDS. Choice D is unrelated to the diagnosis of AIDS in adults.

4. What is a key component of a successful smoking cessation program?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Providing nicotine replacement therapy is a key component of smoking cessation programs as it helps individuals manage nicotine withdrawal symptoms. Nicotine replacement therapy includes options like nicotine gum, patches, lozenges, or inhalers. Choice B, offering surgical interventions, is incorrect as smoking cessation programs primarily focus on behavioral and pharmacological interventions rather than surgical procedures. Choice C, conducting regular health screenings, is also incorrect as it is not a direct key component of smoking cessation programs. Choice D, promoting alcohol consumption, is not only incorrect but counterproductive, as it can be detrimental to overall health and hinder smoking cessation efforts.

5. A nurse working in a community health setting is performing primary health screenings. Which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners is at the highest risk for contracting an HIV infection due to engaging in risky sexual behavior with multiple partners, increasing the likelihood of exposure to the virus. Choice B is less risky as the individual has had a relatively lower number of sexual partners in the past year. Choice C, although involving drug use, does not directly correlate with a higher risk of contracting HIV unless needles are shared. Choice D, a 34-year-old male homosexual in a monogamous relationship, has a lower risk compared to choice A as long as the relationship remains monogamous.

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