a client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complicati
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HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Exam

1. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperglycemia. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) contains a high glucose content, which can lead to elevated blood sugar levels, resulting in hyperglycemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial in clients receiving TPN to prevent complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because TPN is more likely to cause hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, or hyponatremia.

2. Which of the following statements about TB treatment is INCORRECT?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Single drug therapy is not appropriate for TB due to the risk of developing resistance. The most effective approach to TB treatment is a combination of 3-4 anti-TB drugs. This combination helps to prevent the development of drug resistance and improve treatment outcomes. Choice C is correct as TB treatment, when completed successfully, renders patients non-infectious and cured. Choice D is also correct as tuberculosis is indeed a curable disease with appropriate treatment. Therefore, the incorrect statement is B.

3. Which individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes. This individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to factors such as homelessness, alcoholism, and smoking, which weaken the immune system and make them more susceptible to respiratory infections. Choice A is incorrect as working with underprivileged children, while potentially exposing the individual to various illnesses, does not directly increase the risk of pneumonia. Choice B is less likely as exercise-induced wheezing may suggest asthma but does not directly correlate with pneumonia risk. Choice D, an aerobics instructor who eats only vegetables and skips meals, does not have the same level of risk factors for pneumonia as the homeless person in choice C.

4. In the implementation of the national family planning program, the government assumes the role of a:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'facilitator.' In the implementation of a national family planning program, the government plays a role as a facilitator, meaning it helps to support and enable the access to family planning services and information. The government's role is to ensure that services are available, accessible, and of good quality, rather than making decisions for individuals or regulating them. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the government's role is not to make decisions on behalf of individuals (decision-maker), strictly regulate family planning practices (regulator), or impose decisions without considering individual choices (dictator).

5. A client with schizophrenia is receiving haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Extrapyramidal symptoms. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms such as tardive dyskinesia and akathisia. These side effects are common with the use of typical antipsychotics. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common side effect of haloperidol. Choice B, Hypotension, is also not a typical side effect associated with haloperidol use. Choice D, Hyperglycemia, is not directly linked to haloperidol administration, as it is more commonly associated with other medications like atypical antipsychotics or certain medical conditions.

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