Nursing Elites

1. What title should be given to this role in occupational health? An advanced practice nurse who provides workers with primary care services with an emphasis on the diagnosis and management of common acute illnesses/injuries and stable chronic diseases.

• A. case manager
• B. nurse consultant
• C. clinician nurse practitioner
• D. health promotion specialist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct title for this role is a clinician nurse practitioner as they provide primary care services, including diagnosing and managing illnesses. Choice A, case manager, typically focuses on coordinating care and services for patients. Choice B, nurse consultant, involves providing expert advice and guidance. Choice D, health promotion specialist, concentrates on promoting health and preventing diseases rather than diagnosing and treating illnesses.

2. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. White blood cell count (WBC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.

3. Prior to initiating a community health program targeting teenage smoking, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. The incidence of smoking among the teenage population in this community.
• B. The amount of available funding for tobacco prevention education programs.
• C. The target objectives for teenage smoking described by Healthy People 2020.
• D. Satisfaction data from programs that targeted the teenage population in this community.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to obtain before initiating a community health program targeting teenage smoking is the incidence of smoking among the teenage population in the community. Understanding the prevalence of smoking will help in designing effective intervention strategies. Choice B about funding, while important, is secondary to understanding the scope of the issue. Choice C, the target objectives from Healthy People 2020, may provide guidance but are not as crucial as knowing the local prevalence. Choice D, satisfaction data from previous programs, does not provide essential information for planning a new program.

4. A client with a peptic ulcer is scheduled for a vagotomy and pyloroplasty. The nurse explains that the purpose of this surgery is to:

• A. Increase acid secretion
• B. Reduce acid secretion
• C. Promote gastric emptying
• D. Remove the ulcerated area

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Reduce acid secretion." Vagotomy is performed to reduce acid secretion by cutting the vagus nerve, which stimulates acid production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A vagotomy does not increase acid secretion, promote gastric emptying, or remove the ulcerated area. It specifically aims to decrease acid production to help in the healing of peptic ulcers.

5. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Constipation
• B. Hypertension
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.

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