Nursing Elites

1. What title should be given to this role in occupational health? An advanced practice nurse who provides workers with primary care services with an emphasis on the diagnosis and management of common acute illnesses/injuries and stable chronic diseases.

• A. case manager
• B. nurse consultant
• C. clinician nurse practitioner
• D. health promotion specialist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct title for this role is a clinician nurse practitioner as they provide primary care services, including diagnosing and managing illnesses. Choice A, case manager, typically focuses on coordinating care and services for patients. Choice B, nurse consultant, involves providing expert advice and guidance. Choice D, health promotion specialist, concentrates on promoting health and preventing diseases rather than diagnosing and treating illnesses.

2. A community health nurse is planning a health promotion campaign. What should be the first step?

• A. Developing educational materials
• B. Assessing the needs of the community
• C. Implementing interventions
• D. Evaluating outcomes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step in planning a health promotion campaign is to assess the needs of the community. By understanding the community's specific health needs, preferences, and resources, the nurse can tailor the campaign effectively. Developing educational materials (choice A) should come after assessing needs to ensure relevance. Implementing interventions (choice C) and evaluating outcomes (choice D) should also follow the assessment phase to measure the impact of the campaign accurately.

3. A client was admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia. When auscultating the client's breath sounds, the nurse hears inspiratory crackles in the right base. Temperature is 102.3 degrees Fahrenheit orally. What finding would the nurse expect?

• A. Flushed skin
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Mental confusion
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mental confusion. In this scenario, the client's high fever and pneumonia diagnosis indicate an infection. Infections, especially in older adults, can lead to mental confusion due to the body's systemic response to the infection. Flushed skin (choice A) is more commonly associated with fever but does not specifically relate to the client's condition. Bradycardia (choice B) and hypotension (choice D) are less likely findings in a client with pneumonia and a high fever; instead, tachycardia and increased blood pressure are more commonly seen in response to infection.

4. A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Tendonitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause tendonitis and an increased risk of tendon rupture. Monitoring for tendonitis is crucial as it can lead to significant musculoskeletal issues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use.

5. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving baclofen (Lioresal). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Muscle spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drowsiness. Baclofen, a muscle relaxant commonly used to treat conditions like multiple sclerosis, can cause drowsiness as a side effect. Monitoring for drowsiness is important to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because baclofen is not known to cause hypertension. Choice B, Muscle spasms, is not a common side effect of baclofen but rather the symptom it is used to treat. Choice D, Tachycardia, is also incorrect as baclofen is not associated with causing an increase in heart rate.

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