Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

• A. Administering a bronchodilator
• B. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids
• C. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask
• D. Performing chest physiotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention in an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help to quickly open the airways, relieve bronchospasm, and improve breathing. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids may be beneficial for other conditions but is not the priority in an acute asthma attack. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask may be necessary in severe cases of respiratory distress but is not the initial priority when managing an acute asthma attack. Performing chest physiotherapy is not indicated as the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack and may not address the immediate need to open the airways and improve breathing.

2. The PN administered darbepoetin alfa to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which serum laboratory value should the PN monitor to assess the effectiveness of this drug?

• A. Calcium
• B. Phosphorus
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Darbepoetin alfa is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with CKD. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and to adjust the dosage to avoid complications such as hypertension or thrombosis. Monitoring calcium (Choice A), phosphorus (Choice B), or white blood cell count (Choice D) is not directly related to the effectiveness of darbepoetin alfa in treating anemia associated with CKD.

3. What is the function of the epiglottis during swallowing?

• A. Prevents food from entering the trachea
• B. Aids in food propulsion
• C. Enhances taste sensation
• D. Lubricates the esophagus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The epiglottis is a flap of tissue that closes over the trachea during swallowing to prevent food and liquids from entering the airway. Choice A is correct because the primary function of the epiglottis is to act as a lid over the trachea, ensuring that food goes down the esophagus and not into the windpipe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not describe the specific role of the epiglottis during swallowing.

4. Which assessment finding would most likely indicate a complication of enteral tube feeding?

• A. Abdominal distension
• B. Weight gain
• C. Decreased bowel sounds
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abdominal distension in a patient receiving enteral tube feeding may indicate a complication such as intolerance to feeding, delayed gastric emptying, or obstruction. Abdominal distension is a common sign of gastrointestinal issues related to enteral tube feeding. Weight gain is typically an expected outcome if the patient is receiving adequate nutrition. Decreased bowel sounds may indicate decreased motility but are not specific to enteral tube feeding complications. Diarrhea can occur due to various reasons, including infections, medications, or dietary changes, but it is not the most likely indication of a complication in enteral tube feeding.

5. You are caring for a patient who just gave birth to a 6 lb. 13 oz. baby boy. The infant gave out a lusty cry, had a pink coloration all over his body, had flexed arms and legs, cried when stimulated, and had a pulse rate of 94. What Apgar score would you expect for this baby?

• A. 10
• B. 8
• C. 7
• D. 9

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Apgar score is a method used to quickly assess the health of newborns. In this scenario, the baby would receive 2 points for color, reflex irritability, and muscle tone, but only 1 point for a pulse rate of 94, resulting in an Apgar score of 9. An Apgar score of 9 indicates that the baby is in good health overall. Choice A (10) is incorrect because a pulse rate of 94 would only score 1 point. Choices B (8) and C (7) are incorrect as the given criteria would lead to a higher score, indicating the baby's good health.

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