Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

• A. Administering a bronchodilator
• B. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids
• C. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask
• D. Performing chest physiotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention in an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help to quickly open the airways, relieve bronchospasm, and improve breathing. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids may be beneficial for other conditions but is not the priority in an acute asthma attack. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask may be necessary in severe cases of respiratory distress but is not the initial priority when managing an acute asthma attack. Performing chest physiotherapy is not indicated as the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack and may not address the immediate need to open the airways and improve breathing.

2. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?

• A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
• B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
• C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
• D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.

3. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

4. A nurse is completing a focused assessment of an older adult's skin. The nurse notes a crusted 0.7 cm lesion on the client's forehead. Which action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

• A. Report the finding to the healthcare provider
• B. Place a clear occlusive dressing over the site
• C. Apply a warm compress to remove the crusted area
• D. Explain that this is a normal skin change with aging

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A crusted lesion, especially in an older adult, could be indicative of skin cancer or another serious condition. Therefore, reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for further evaluation and appropriate management. Placing an occlusive dressing (Choice B) could prevent proper assessment and treatment. Applying a warm compress (Choice C) may not be suitable for a suspicious skin lesion as it could worsen the condition. Explaining it as a normal skin change (Choice D) without proper evaluation can delay necessary interventions and potentially harm the patient.

5. The single mother of a child with a head injury is sitting at the child's bedside crying when the PN enters the room. The mother states, 'Why did this happen to my child? I just can't cope with this.' How should the PN respond?

• A. Ask her to share how the injury occurred to her child.
• B. Recommend that she remain calm and positive for her child.
• C. Express that the present situation must be overwhelming.
• D. Determine if someone else can help her cope with this tragedy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Expressing empathy and acknowledging the mother's feelings helps in providing emotional support during a difficult time. This response validates her emotions and offers a comforting presence. Choice A is not appropriate as it focuses on gathering information rather than addressing the mother's emotional distress. Choice B may come off as dismissive of the mother's feelings and oversimplifies the complexity of the situation. Choice D shifts the responsibility to someone else instead of offering immediate support and comfort.

Similar Questions