Nursing Elites

1. An older male client with Alzheimer's disease is admitted to an extended care facility. Which intervention should the PN include in the client's nursing care plan?

• A. Plan to have the same nursing staff provide care for the client whenever possible
• B. Describe the activities available to residents and encourage him to choose the ones he prefers
• C. Encourage the client to remain on the unit for three weeks until he is oriented to his new surroundings
• D. Introduce the client to the nursing staff and other residents as soon as possible

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Alzheimer's disease in an extended care facility is to plan to have the same nursing staff provide care whenever possible. Consistency in caregivers helps reduce confusion and anxiety in clients with Alzheimer’s disease, promoting a stable and supportive environment for the client. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on activities rather than the consistency of caregivers. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests isolating the client, which can lead to increased confusion and distress. Choice D is incorrect as introducing the client to new people immediately can be overwhelming and may exacerbate their symptoms.

2. Which condition is characterized by a progressive loss of muscle strength due to an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors?

• A. Myasthenia gravis
• B. Multiple sclerosis
• C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
• D. Guillain-Barré syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Myasthenia gravis. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by muscle weakness caused by autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. This results in impaired communication between nerves and muscles. Choice B, Multiple sclerosis, is a condition where the immune system attacks the protective myelin sheath covering the nerves in the central nervous system, leading to communication issues between the brain and the rest of the body. Choice C, Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, is a progressive neurodegenerative disease affecting motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord, not involving acetylcholine receptors. Choice D, Guillain-Barré syndrome, is an acute condition where the immune system attacks the peripheral nerves, causing muscle weakness and paralysis, but it does not target acetylcholine receptors.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with seizures?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Hyponatremia, characterized by low sodium levels in the blood, can lead to cerebral edema and seizures due to water shifting into brain cells. Hypercalcemia (choice B) does not commonly cause seizures but can result in muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Hyperkalemia (choice C) may lead to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, but it is less frequently associated with seizures. Hypokalemia (choice D) is linked to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias but is not typically related to seizures.

4. Which of the following is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?

• A. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine
• B. Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees
• C. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
• D. Changing the ventilator circuit daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) because it helps reduce the risk of aspiration, which is a significant factor in the development of VAP. Elevating the head of the bed enhances pulmonary hygiene, decreases the risk of microaspiration, and promotes better lung function. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine is essential for oral hygiene but is not specifically aimed at preventing VAP. Administering prophylactic antibiotics without a clear indication can lead to antibiotic resistance and is not a recommended routine practice to prevent VAP. Changing the ventilator circuit daily is essential for infection control but is not the most critical step in preventing VAP.

5. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?

• A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
• B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
• C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
• D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.

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