HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. Which information should the nurse collect during the admission assessment of a terminally ill client to an acute care facility?
- A. Name of funeral home to contact
- B. Client's wishes regarding organ donation
- C. Contact information for the client's next of kin
- D. Healthcare proxy information
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During the admission assessment of a terminally ill client, it is crucial for the nurse to collect the client's wishes regarding organ donation. This information is vital to ensure that the care provided aligns with the client's values and preferences. Option A, 'Name of funeral home to contact,' is not a priority during the admission assessment and can be addressed later. Option C, 'Contact information for the client's next of kin,' is important but not as critical as understanding the client's wishes regarding organ donation. Option D, 'Healthcare proxy information,' is important for decision-making if the client is unable to make healthcare decisions, but knowing the client's wishes regarding organ donation takes precedence in this scenario.
2. A client is complaining of a tingling sensation in the fingers, nose tip, and earlobes 24 hours after a total thyroidectomy. Which measure should the PN implement first?
- A. Apply sequential compression devices bilaterally
- B. Initiate prescribed L-thyroxine replacement therapy
- C. Obtain prescribed calcium gluconate for tetany
- D. Prepare for emergency tracheotomy at the bedside
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obtain prescribed calcium gluconate for tetany. Tingling sensations post-thyroidectomy may indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication that requires prompt treatment with calcium gluconate to prevent tetany. Initiating L-thyroxine replacement therapy (choice B) is important but not the first priority in this situation. Applying sequential compression devices (choice A) is not indicated for tingling sensations and does not address the potential complication of hypocalcemia. Preparing for an emergency tracheotomy (choice D) is not warranted based on the client's symptoms of tingling sensations.
3. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:
- A. Will you briefly summarize your point because others need time as well?
- B. Your behavior is obnoxious and drains the group.
- C. I am so frustrated with your behavior.
- D. To ignore the behavior and allow him to vent
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.
4. A nurse is caring for a 60-year-old man who is scheduled to have coronary bypass surgery in the morning. He tells the nurse that he is afraid that he will die and he is scared of the surgery. What is the best reply for this nurse to give him?
- A. There is no reason to be scared. My father had this surgery, and now he’s playing tennis with his friends almost every day.
- B. I would be scared too. It’s a natural thing to feel. Don’t worry. Everything will be alright.
- C. You’re scared?
- D. The doctor has performed hundreds of successful bypass surgeries. I have a lot of faith in him.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best reply for the nurse to give the patient is option C: 'You’re scared?' This response reflects empathy and understanding, acknowledging the patient's feelings of fear. By directly addressing the patient's emotions, the nurse encourages further expression of concerns, which is crucial in providing emotional support. Choices A and D may come off as dismissive of the patient's feelings by downplaying his fear or shifting the focus to others' experiences. Choice B, although acknowledging the patient's fear, does not actively engage with the patient's emotions or encourage further discussion.
5. After admission, which observation is most important for the nurse to report immediately for an adult client who weighs 150 pounds and has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body from a house fire?
- A. Poor appetite and refusal to eat
- B. Systolic blood pressure at 102
- C. Painful moaning and crying
- D. Urinary output of 20 ml/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urinary output of 20 ml/hr is a sign of inadequate kidney perfusion and could indicate hypovolemic shock, which requires immediate intervention. In this situation, with severe burns over a large portion of the body, monitoring urinary output is crucial to assess kidney function and fluid status. Poor appetite, systolic blood pressure at 102, and painful moaning and crying are important but do not indicate the immediate need for intervention like inadequate urinary output does.
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