HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. Which information should the nurse collect during the admission assessment of a terminally ill client to an acute care facility?
- A. Name of funeral home to contact
- B. Client's wishes regarding organ donation
- C. Contact information for the client's next of kin
- D. Healthcare proxy information
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During the admission assessment of a terminally ill client, it is crucial for the nurse to collect the client's wishes regarding organ donation. This information is vital to ensure that the care provided aligns with the client's values and preferences. Option A, 'Name of funeral home to contact,' is not a priority during the admission assessment and can be addressed later. Option C, 'Contact information for the client's next of kin,' is important but not as critical as understanding the client's wishes regarding organ donation. Option D, 'Healthcare proxy information,' is important for decision-making if the client is unable to make healthcare decisions, but knowing the client's wishes regarding organ donation takes precedence in this scenario.
2. Prior to giving digoxin, the PN assesses that a 2-month-old infant's heart rate is 120 beats/minute. Based on this finding, what action should the PN take?
- A. Withhold the medication and notify the charge nurse
- B. Give the medication and document the heart rate
- C. Withhold the medication until the next scheduled dose
- D. Request the charge nurse to administer the medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A heart rate of 120 beats per minute is within the normal range for a 2-month-old infant. Therefore, it is safe to administer the digoxin and document the heart rate as part of routine care. Choice A is incorrect as withholding the medication is not necessary since the heart rate is normal. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to delay the administration until the next scheduled dose when the heart rate is within the normal range. Choice D is incorrect as the primary nurse is not needed to administer the medication since the heart rate is normal and falls within the safe range for administration.
3. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?
- A. Olfactory nerve
- B. Optic nerve
- C. Trigeminal nerve
- D. Vagus nerve
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The olfactory nerve (Cranial Nerve I) is indeed responsible for the sense of smell. It is located in the nasal cavity and transmits olfactory information to the brain. The optic nerve (Choice B) is responsible for vision, the trigeminal nerve (Choice C) is responsible for sensation in the face, and the vagus nerve (Choice D) is responsible for various functions such as heart rate, digestion, and speech. Therefore, the correct answer is the olfactory nerve (Choice A).
4. Which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
- A. High protein, low sodium
- B. Low protein, high potassium
- C. Low sodium, low potassium
- D. High calcium, low phosphorus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A low sodium, low potassium diet is often recommended for patients with CKD to manage fluid balance and prevent electrolyte imbalances that the kidneys can no longer regulate effectively. High protein diets, as mentioned in choice A, can put extra strain on the kidneys, making it an incorrect choice. Choice B, which suggests a low protein, high potassium diet, is also incorrect because high potassium levels can be harmful to individuals with CKD. Choice D, advocating for a high calcium, low phosphorus diet, is not the typical dietary recommendation for CKD patients, even though managing calcium and phosphorus levels is important in their diet.
5. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?
- A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
- B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
- C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
- D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.
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