HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. A client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax is concerned about the continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What should the nurse explain to the client?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak.
- B. Continuous bubbling is normal and expected with a chest tube.
- C. Bubbling will stop when the lung has fully expanded.
- D. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube system indicates an air leak. An air leak can prevent the lung from fully re-expanding and may lead to complications like a recurrent pneumothorax. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate and address the air leak promptly. Choices B and C are incorrect because continuous bubbling is not normal and does not indicate lung expansion. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should first assess and then report the issue to the healthcare provider.
2. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?
- A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
- B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
- C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
- D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.
3. Following delivery of a newborn, the 21-year-old mother is experiencing mild vaginal bleeding. You note that her heart rate has increased from 90 to 120 beats/min and she is diaphoretic. Management should include
- A. oxygen, uterine massage, and transport
- B. oxygen, placement on the left side, and transport
- C. oxygen, treatment for shock, and uterus massage during transport
- D. oxygen, internal vaginal pads, and treatment of shock during transport
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Postpartum hemorrhage can lead to shock due to excessive bleeding. Oxygen should be provided to support oxygenation. Treatment for shock, which includes maintaining vital signs and perfusion, is crucial. Uterine massage helps prevent further bleeding by promoting uterine contraction. This combination of interventions is essential for managing postpartum hemorrhage effectively. Choices A, B, and D lack the comprehensive approach needed for managing postpartum hemorrhage, as they do not address the treatment of shock, which is vital in this scenario.
4. Based on this strip, what is the interpretation of this rhythm?
- A. Atrial fibrillation.
- B. Ventricular tachycardia.
- C. Normal sinus rhythm.
- D. Second-degree heart block.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Normal sinus rhythm. Normal sinus rhythm is characterized by a regular rhythm, normal P waves, and a consistent PR interval. In this context, the strip likely shows a normal ECG pattern with these characteristics, indicating a healthy heart rhythm. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Atrial fibrillation would show an irregularly irregular rhythm with no discernible P waves. Ventricular tachycardia would display wide QRS complexes and a fast heart rate. Second-degree heart block would exhibit intermittent dropped QRS complexes.
5. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?
- A. 42 gtt/min
- B. 83 gtt/min
- C. 125 gtt/min
- D. 250 gtt/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.