Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following changes was enacted by the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act?

• A. Creation of national health insurance exchanges for affordable insurance coverage
• B. Expansion of school-based health centers
• C. Free preventative services for all
• D. Medically managed clinics eligible for federal funding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act expanded school-based health centers to provide additional healthcare services to students. Choice A is incorrect because the creation of national health insurance exchanges was a key provision of the Affordable Care Act, but it was not the only change enacted by the legislation. Choice C is incorrect as while the Affordable Care Act did include provisions for free preventative services for certain groups, it was not applicable to all individuals. Choice D is incorrect as the Act did not specifically address medically managed clinics eligible for federal funding.

2. What is the significance of patient advocacy in nursing?

• A. Prioritizing the needs of the healthcare team over the patient
• B. Ensuring that patients' rights and preferences are respected
• C. Limiting patient autonomy
• D. Focusing solely on clinical procedures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patient advocacy in nursing entails ensuring that patients' rights and preferences are respected. This involves advocating for the patients' best interests, supporting informed decision-making, and safeguarding their autonomy. Choice A is incorrect because patient advocacy focuses on the patient's needs, not the healthcare team's. Choice C is incorrect as patient advocacy aims to empower patients and enhance their autonomy rather than limiting it. Choice D is incorrect since patient advocacy goes beyond clinical procedures to encompass holistic care that addresses the patients' preferences and rights.

3. A client with DM states, 'I cannot eat big meals; I prefer to snack throughout the day.' The nurse should carefully explain that the:

• A. Regulated food intake is crucial for control
• B. Restricting salt and sugar is the main concern
• C. Opting for small, frequent meals aids digestion
• D. Consuming large meals can contribute to weight issues

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with diabetes, regulated food intake is crucial for controlling blood glucose levels. Choice A is the correct answer because maintaining consistent meal sizes and timings helps in managing blood sugar levels effectively. Choice B is incorrect because while monitoring salt and sugar intake is important, it is not the primary consideration in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as the focus is on regulating food intake rather than aiding digestion. Choice D is also incorrect because consuming large meals can indeed lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels, but the primary concern in this case is the regulation of food intake for better control of diabetes.

4. A nurse is comparing the rate of medication errors on the medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Which of the following quality improvement methods is the nurse using?

• A. Structure audit
• B. Benchmarking
• C. Risk benefit analysis
• D. Root cause analysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Benchmarking. Benchmarking involves comparing performance metrics with those from other units or institutions, which is exactly what the nurse is doing by comparing the rate of medication errors on their medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Choice A, Structure audit, is not relevant to this scenario as it focuses on assessing the physical, organizational, or procedural structures in a healthcare setting. Choice C, Risk benefit analysis, involves weighing the potential risks and benefits of a particular course of action, not comparing performance metrics. Choice D, Root cause analysis, is a method used to identify the underlying causes of problems or adverse events, not to compare performance metrics between units.

5. Which atrioventricular heart block is also referred to as Mobitz II?

• A. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block
• B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block
• C. First-degree atrioventricular heart block
• D. Complete heart block

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block is also known as Mobitz II. In Mobitz II, some atrial impulses are blocked from reaching the ventricles, resulting in occasional dropped beats. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block is known as complete heart block, where no atrial impulses reach the ventricles. First-degree atrioventricular heart block is a condition where there is delayed conduction between the atria and ventricles but all atrial impulses are eventually conducted to the ventricles.

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