HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet
1. What is the primary goal of public health?
- A. To focus on individual patient care
- B. To improve the health of populations
- C. To reduce healthcare costs
- D. To increase hospital admissions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of public health is to improve the health of populations by focusing on prevention, health promotion, and addressing the social determinants of health. Choice A is incorrect because public health looks at health from a population perspective rather than focusing on individual patient care. Choice C, while a potential benefit, is not the primary goal of public health. Choice D is incorrect as increasing hospital admissions is not a goal of public health; in fact, public health aims to prevent unnecessary hospitalizations through preventive measures.
2. Serge, who has diabetes mellitus, is taking oral agents and is scheduled for a diagnostic test that requires him to be NPO. What is the best plan of action for the nurse regarding Serge's oral medications?
- A. Administer the oral agents immediately after the test.
- B. Notify the diagnostic department and request orders.
- C. Notify the physician and request orders.
- D. Administer the oral agents with a sip of water before the test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best plan of action for the nurse is to notify the physician and request orders regarding Serge's oral medications. By involving the physician, the nurse ensures that appropriate instructions are obtained, considering Serge's medical condition and the need for NPO status for the diagnostic test. Administering the medications without medical guidance (choice A) can be risky, as it may affect the test results. Notifying the diagnostic department (choice B) is not the most direct and appropriate action; the physician is the primary healthcare provider responsible for medication orders. Administering the medications with water before the test (choice D) is not advisable when the patient is supposed to be NPO, as it can interfere with the test requirements.
3. A nurse is receiving a verbal prescription from the provider for a client who is experiencing increased pain. The nurse should transcribe which of the following prescriptions in the client's medical record?
- A. Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain
- B. MS 10 mg IV every 4 8 prn for pain
- C. MSO4 10 mg IVP q 4 8 prn for pain
- D. Morphine sulfate 10.0 mg every 4 hours IV prn for pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct transcription is 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain.' In choice A, 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain' correctly indicates the medication, route (IV), frequency (every 4 hours), and administration as needed for pain control. Choice B is incorrect as 'MS' is not a standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and the frequency 'every 4 8' is not a valid time interval. Choice C is incorrect as 'MSO4' is not the standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and 'IVP' is not the standard route abbreviation for intravenous. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity with '10.0 mg' instead of '10 mg,' and the frequency is given as 'every 4 hours' without specifying the route of administration.
4. Which statement about glaucoma is true and accurate?
- A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.
- B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma leads to the loss of peripheral vision and tunnel vision.
- C. Primary open-angle glaucoma leads to eye pain, nausea, and vomiting, blurry vision, and halos.
- D. Bubbles are implanted to protect the retina from glaucoma.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.' Acute angle-closure glaucoma is indeed considered an ocular emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choice B is incorrect because acute angle-closure glaucoma commonly presents with symptoms like severe eye pain, headache, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Choice C is incorrect as these symptoms are more indicative of acute angle-closure glaucoma rather than primary open-angle glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect since bubbles are not typically used to protect the retina from glaucoma; treatment usually involves medications, laser therapy, or surgery to manage intraocular pressure.
5. Which skin disorder most closely resembles and mimics dandruff?
- A. Lice infestation
- B. Scabies
- C. Dermatitis
- D. Acne vulgaris
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dermatitis can closely resemble and mimic dandruff due to similar symptoms like flaking and itching. Lice infestation (choice A) is characterized by the presence of lice and their eggs attached to the hair shaft, different from dandruff. Scabies (choice B) is a contagious skin condition caused by mites, presenting as burrows, rashes, and intense itching, not typically resembling dandruff. Acne vulgaris (choice D) is a skin condition involving hair follicles and sebaceous glands, manifesting as pimples and inflammation, which is distinct from dandruff.
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