Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following actions can an individual nurse take to exert leadership in supporting the profession of nursing?

• A. Join a local professional organization.
• B. Talk about healthcare issues to everyone who will listen, including legislators.
• C. Register to vote.
• D. Learn about the healthcare system.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Engaging in conversations about healthcare issues with a wide audience, including legislators, is a powerful way for a nurse to exert leadership and support the nursing profession. This action helps raise awareness, advocate for nursing-related matters, and contribute to positive changes in healthcare policies. Choice A, joining a local professional organization, is beneficial but may not have the same broad impact as engaging in public discourse. Choice C, registering to vote, is important for civic engagement but does not directly relate to exerting leadership in supporting the nursing profession. Choice D, learning about the healthcare system, is valuable for personal development but does not directly address exerting leadership in supporting the nursing profession.

2. A nurse on a med-surg unit is caring for a group of clients with the assistance of an LPN and an AP. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to the LPN?

• A. Reinforce dietary teaching with a client who has heart disease.
• B. Obtaining a urine specimen from an older adult client
• C. Providing postmortem care for a client who has just died.
• D. Accompanying a client who just had a wound debridement to PT.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to reinforce dietary teaching with a client who has heart disease. This task falls within the LPN's scope of practice as they can provide education and support related to nutrition. Obtaining a urine specimen (Choice B) is typically performed by nursing assistants. Providing postmortem care (Choice C) is a sensitive task usually performed by registered nurses. Accompanying a client to physical therapy (Choice D) is often done by nursing assistants or other supportive staff.

3. Which statement about glaucoma is true and accurate?

• A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.
• B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma leads to the loss of peripheral vision and tunnel vision.
• C. Primary open-angle glaucoma leads to eye pain, nausea, and vomiting, blurry vision, and halos.
• D. Bubbles are implanted to protect the retina from glaucoma.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.' Acute angle-closure glaucoma is indeed considered an ocular emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choice B is incorrect because acute angle-closure glaucoma commonly presents with symptoms like severe eye pain, headache, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Choice C is incorrect as these symptoms are more indicative of acute angle-closure glaucoma rather than primary open-angle glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect since bubbles are not typically used to protect the retina from glaucoma; treatment usually involves medications, laser therapy, or surgery to manage intraocular pressure.

4. Which patient is at greatest risk for papilledema?

• A. An elderly patient with cataracts and macular degeneration
• B. A male patient with hypothyroidism
• C. A male patient with hyperthyroidism
• D. An adolescent with a closed head injury

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An adolescent with a closed head injury is at the highest risk for papilledema due to increased intracranial pressure. Papilledema is often a consequence of elevated intracranial pressure, which can occur in conditions like head trauma. Choices A, B, and C do not directly correlate with an increased risk of papilledema compared to a closed head injury, which is more likely to lead to elevated intracranial pressure and subsequent papilledema.

5. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

• A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
• B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
• C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
• D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.

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