Nursing Elites

1. A charge nurse on an obstetrical unit is preparing the shift assignment. Which of the following clients should be assigned to an RN who has floated from a medical-surgical unit?

• A. A client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has premature rupture of membranes
• B. A multigravida client who has preeclampsia and is receiving misoprostol for induction of labor
• C. A primigravida client who is 1 day postoperative following a Cesarean section and has a PCA pump
• D. A client who has gestational diabetes and is receiving biweekly nonstress tests

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A nurse who floated from a medical-surgical unit would be appropriate to care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a Cesarean section and has a PCA pump. This client requires monitoring of the postoperative incision site, pain management through the PCA pump, and assessment for any signs of complications related to the surgery. Assigning this client to an RN with experience in postoperative care aligns with providing specialized and appropriate care. Choices A, B, and D involve conditions or procedures specific to obstetrics that would be better managed by a nurse with obstetrical experience, making them incorrect choices for the floated RN.

2. A client with a tumor refuses surgery, but the client's partner wants it. Which is the deciding factor in determining if the surgery will be done?

• A. Whether the partner is the client's durable power of attorney for healthcare
• B. Whether the client understands the risk of refusing the procedure
• C. Whether the client's refusal is based on religious belief
• D. Whether the facility's ethical committee reaches a consensus on the case

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client's understanding of the risks involved in refusing the surgery is crucial in determining the course of action. In this scenario, the client's autonomy and decision-making capacity take precedence. Choice A is not directly relevant to the decision-making process regarding surgery. Choice C, religious beliefs, may influence the decision but should not be the determining factor in this case. Choice D involving the facility's ethical committee is not typically involved in individual patient care decisions.

3. A nurse in a clinic is reviewing laboratory reports for a group of clients. Which of the following diseases should the nurse report to the state health department?

• A. Pertussis
• B. Group B streptococcal disease
• C. Respiratory syncytial virus
• D. Rotavirus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pertussis is the correct answer because it is a reportable disease that healthcare providers are required by law to report to public health authorities. This infectious disease poses a significant public health risk and needs to be monitored closely to prevent outbreaks and implement control measures. Group B streptococcal disease, Respiratory syncytial virus, and Rotavirus are important conditions but are not typically reportable to the state health department. These diseases may require specific precautions in healthcare settings, but they do not fall under mandatory reporting requirements.

4. Which atrioventricular heart block is also referred to as Mobitz II?

• A. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block
• B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block
• C. First-degree atrioventricular heart block
• D. Complete heart block

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block is also known as Mobitz II. In Mobitz II, some atrial impulses are blocked from reaching the ventricles, resulting in occasional dropped beats. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block is known as complete heart block, where no atrial impulses reach the ventricles. First-degree atrioventricular heart block is a condition where there is delayed conduction between the atria and ventricles but all atrial impulses are eventually conducted to the ventricles.

5. Which technique or method is used to determine whether or not the patient has an irregular pulse?

• A. Apical pulse
• B. Inspection
• C. Auscultation
• D. Percussion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An apical pulse check is used to determine if the patient has an irregular pulse. The apical pulse is located at the point of maximal impulse (PMI) and is assessed using a stethoscope. Choice B, inspection, involves visual examination and is not used to assess pulse irregularities. Choice C, auscultation, involves listening to internal sounds using a stethoscope, which can be used to assess heart sounds but not specifically for pulse irregularities. Choice D, percussion, is a technique used to assess the density of body tissues or detect abnormal masses and is not used to determine pulse irregularities.

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