Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following chronic complications is associated with diabetes?

• A. Dizziness, dyspnea on exertion, and coronary artery disease.
• B. Retinopathy, neuropathy, and coronary artery disease.
• C. Leg ulcers, cerebral ischemic events, and pulmonary infarcts.
• D. Fatigue, nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness, and cardiac arrhythmias.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Diabetes is associated with chronic complications such as retinopathy, neuropathy, and coronary artery disease. Choice A includes symptoms rather than chronic complications of diabetes. Choice C lists conditions not typically associated with diabetes. Choice D describes symptoms that may occur in various medical conditions but are not specific chronic complications of diabetes.

2. Which of the following is an example of a chronic disease?

• A. Common cold
• B. Influenza
• C. Diabetes
• D. Food poisoning

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Diabetes is classified as a chronic disease because it is a long-term condition that requires ongoing management. Choices A, B, and D, which are the common cold, influenza, and food poisoning, are acute illnesses that typically resolve on their own without long-lasting implications.

3. Your patient has a blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L. What intervention should you anticipate for this patient?

• A. Intravenous potassium supplementation
• B. Intravenous calcium supplementation
• C. Kidney dialysis
• D. Parenteral nutrition

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Kidney dialysis. A blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L indicates severe hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening. Kidney dialysis is the most appropriate intervention to rapidly lower potassium levels in this situation. Choice A, intravenous potassium supplementation, would worsen the hyperkalemia. Choice B, intravenous calcium supplementation, is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia. Choice D, parenteral nutrition, is unrelated to treating hyperkalemia and would not address the immediate concern.

4. What does the mnemonic PERLA stand for in the assessment of the eyes?

• A. Pupils equally reactive to light and accommodation
• B. Patient eyes are equally recessed and responsive to light and acuity
• C. Patient eyes are equally responsive to light and acuity
• D. Pupils equally reactive to light and acuity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Pupils equally reactive to light and accommodation.' PERLA is a mnemonic used in eye assessments to check for Pupils being equally reactive to Light and Accommodation. Choice B is incorrect as it includes irrelevant information about the eyes being recessed. Choice C is incorrect as it is missing the mention of pupils and accommodation. Choice D is incorrect as it misses the mention of accommodation.

5. What is the main objective of palliative care?

• A. To cure the disease
• B. To provide relief from symptoms and improve quality of life
• C. To extend hospital stays
• D. To focus solely on treatment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The main objective of palliative care is to provide relief from symptoms and improve quality of life. Palliative care focuses on enhancing the quality of life for patients facing serious illnesses by providing relief from symptoms such as pain, stress, and other physical and emotional issues. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care does not aim to cure the disease but rather to manage symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as the goal of palliative care is not to extend hospital stays unnecessarily but to improve the patient's well-being. Choice D is incorrect as palliative care is not solely focused on treatment but takes a holistic approach to care that includes addressing physical, emotional, social, and spiritual needs.

Similar Questions