Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following chronic complications is associated with diabetes?

• A. Dizziness, dyspnea on exertion, and coronary artery disease.
• B. Retinopathy, neuropathy, and coronary artery disease.
• C. Leg ulcers, cerebral ischemic events, and pulmonary infarcts.
• D. Fatigue, nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness, and cardiac arrhythmias.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Diabetes is associated with chronic complications such as retinopathy, neuropathy, and coronary artery disease. Choice A includes symptoms rather than chronic complications of diabetes. Choice C lists conditions not typically associated with diabetes. Choice D describes symptoms that may occur in various medical conditions but are not specific chronic complications of diabetes.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is unconscious and whose partner is their health care surrogate. The partner wishes to discontinue the client's feeding tube, but another family member tells the nurse that they want the client to continue receiving treatment. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. You should contact the provider about your wishes for your family member.
• B. We'll need to have the nursing supervisor review the client's advance directives.
• C. You should speak with the facility's ethics committee about your concerns.
• D. As the health care surrogate, the client's partner can make this decision.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is D because the health care surrogate, as designated by the client, has the legal authority to make healthcare decisions on behalf of the client when they are unable to do so. This authority includes decisions about treatment continuation or withdrawal. Option A is incorrect as the family member's wishes do not override the legal authority of the health care surrogate. Option B is not the most appropriate action in this situation as the advance directives are already clear by the designation of a health care surrogate. Option C is not necessary at this stage since the health care surrogate can make the decision without involving the ethics committee.

3. What does the mnemonic PERLA stand for in the assessment of the eyes?

• A. Pupils equally reactive to light and accommodation
• B. Patient eyes are equally recessed and responsive to light and acuity
• C. Patient eyes are equally responsive to light and acuity
• D. Pupils equally reactive to light and acuity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Pupils equally reactive to light and accommodation.' PERLA is a mnemonic used in eye assessments to check for Pupils being equally reactive to Light and Accommodation. Choice B is incorrect as it includes irrelevant information about the eyes being recessed. Choice C is incorrect as it is missing the mention of pupils and accommodation. Choice D is incorrect as it misses the mention of accommodation.

4. A nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level?

• A. Alcoholism
• B. Renal insufficiency
• C. Hypoparathyroidism
• D. Tumor lysis syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcoholism. Alcoholism can lead to hypophosphatemia due to poor dietary intake and other factors. Excessive alcohol consumption can result in malnutrition, particularly a deficiency in phosphorus. Choices B, C, and D are unlikely to cause low serum phosphorus levels. Renal insufficiency is more likely to cause hyperphosphatemia, hypoparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcemia rather than hypophosphatemia, and tumor lysis syndrome typically presents with hyperphosphatemia due to the release of intracellular phosphate.

5. Select the tactile sensation that is accurately paired with its description or procedure for testing.

• A. Fine motor coordination: The use of the fingers
• B. Stereognosis: Equal hearing in both ears
• C. Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin
• D. Gross motor function: The use of the lower limbs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin. Two-point discrimination assesses the ability to discern two points touched simultaneously on the skin. Fine motor coordination (Choice A) refers to the precise movements of small muscles, not related to tactile sensation. Stereognosis (Choice B) is the ability to recognize objects by touch, not equal hearing in both ears. Gross motor function (Choice D) involves the coordination of large muscle groups, not specifically related to tactile sensation testing.

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