Nursing Elites

1. Which nursing diagnosis should be selected for a client who is receiving thrombolytic infusions for treatment of an acute myocardial infarction?

• A. Risk for infection related to thrombolysis.
• B. Risk for fluid volume deficit related to thrombolysis.
• C. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to thrombolysis.
• D. Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy increases the risk of bleeding, not infection, fluid volume deficit, or impaired skin integrity. The most significant concern with thrombolytic therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, which can lead to various injuries. Therefore, 'Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis' is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this scenario. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the primary risk associated with thrombolytic therapy.

2. The nurse is teaching a client about coronary artery disease (CAD) preventive health. Which behavior stated by the client indicates a need for additional information and teaching?

• A. Increasing physical activity.
• B. Eating a low-fat diet.
• C. Decreasing the number of cigarettes smoked per day.
• D. Monitoring blood pressure regularly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Decreasing the number of cigarettes smoked per day is not sufficient for CAD prevention. Smoking cessation is crucial in reducing the risk of CAD. While increasing physical activity, eating a low-fat diet, and monitoring blood pressure regularly are all positive behaviors for CAD prevention, quitting smoking should be emphasized due to its significant impact on cardiovascular health.

3. The parents of a child suffering from depression ask the nurse what causes depression in children. Which answer is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. The causes of major depression are unknown.
• B. Major affective disorders in parents increase depression in children.
• C. Boys are more likely than girls to be depressed.
• D. The prevalence rate is higher in prepubescent children.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because while the exact causes of depression in children are not fully understood, research indicates that children are more likely to experience depression if their parents have a major affective disorder. Choice A is incorrect because it suggests that the causes of major depression are entirely unknown, which is not accurate. Choice C is incorrect as there is no conclusive evidence that boys are more likely than girls to be depressed. Choice D is incorrect as the prevalence rate of depression is not necessarily higher in prepubescent children specifically.

4. A female client who was involved in a motor vehicle collision is admitted with a fractured left femur which is immobilized using a fracture traction splint in preparation for an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The nurse determines that her distal pulses are diminished in the left foot. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

• A. Verify pedal pulses using a doppler pulse device.
• B. Monitor left leg for pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, pressure.
• C. Evaluate the application of the splint to the left leg.
• D.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: It is crucial for the nurse to evaluate the application of the splint to the left leg in a client with diminished distal pulses. This assessment helps ensure that the splint is not causing any compromise to circulation. Verifying pulses and monitoring for leg conditions are important interventions but do not directly address the issue with the splint application in this scenario, making them less relevant.

5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?

• A. Evidence of spread of the disease to the kidney.
• B. Confirmation of the autoimmune disease process.
• C. Representative of a decline in the client's condition.
• D. Indication of the onset of joint degeneration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct interpretation of elevated serum rheumatoid factor in a client with rheumatoid arthritis is confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rheumatoid factor is a marker for autoimmune activity, thus confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Choice A is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not specifically indicate spread of the disease to the kidney. Choice C is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not always represent a decline in the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor is not an indication of the onset of joint degeneration, but rather points towards autoimmune activity.

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