a young adult client admitted to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision is transfused with 4 units of prbcs the clients pretrans
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1. A young adult client, admitted to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision, is transfused with 4 units of PRBCs. The client’s pretransfusion hematocrit is 17%. Which hematocrit value should the nurse expect the client to have after all PRBCs have been transfused?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: One unit of PRBCs typically raises the hematocrit by 3%. Since the client received 4 units, the hematocrit is expected to increase by approximately 12% (4 units x 3% per unit). Therefore, the nurse should expect the client's hematocrit to be 29% after all PRBCs have been transfused. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not account for the cumulative effect of multiple PRBC units on the hematocrit level.

2. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

3. The settings on a client's synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) are respiratory rate 12 breaths/minute, tidal volume at 600 mL, FiO2 35%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm H2O. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-pressure alarm may indicate a disconnection or leak in the system, which needs immediate intervention. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases may indicate fluid overload but do not require immediate intervention in this case. An oxygen saturation of 91% is concerning but not as urgent as a potential equipment issue. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute is higher than the set rate but may not necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other distress symptoms.

4. The nurse is teaching a client with glomerulonephritis about self-care. Which dietary recommendations should the nurse encourage the client to follow?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Restrict protein intake by limiting meats and other high-protein foods. In glomerulonephritis, reducing protein intake helps to lower the workload on the kidneys, as excessive protein can lead to increased production of waste products that the kidneys must filter. This restriction can help prevent further damage to the kidneys. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Increasing high-fiber foods like bran cereal is beneficial for other conditions but not specific to glomerulonephritis. C) Limiting oral fluid intake to 500ml per day is not appropriate as fluid restrictions are usually individualized based on the client's condition and kidney function. D) Increasing potassium-rich foods like bananas and cantaloupe may not be suitable for all clients with glomerulonephritis, as potassium levels can be affected in kidney disease and individual needs may vary.

5. How should the nurse measure urinary output for an infant with dehydration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct way to measure urinary output for an infant with dehydration is by weighing the diaper. Wet diapers are weighed to assess the amount of output accurately. Attaching a urine collecting bag and inserting a catheter are invasive methods not typically used for routine measurement of urinary output in infants. Wringing out the diaper can lead to inaccurate measurements and is not a recommended method for assessing urinary output.

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