Nursing Elites

1. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103.8°F, blood pressure 90/70, pulse 124 beats/min, and respirations of 28 breaths/min. When the nurse assesses the client's findings, they include a mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.
• B. Initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids.
• C. Transfer the client to the ICU.
• D. Assess the client's core temperature.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of sepsis, indicated by a high temperature, low blood pressure, rapid heart rate, and increased respiratory rate. Mottled skin appearance and confusion are also signs of poor perfusion. Initiating IV fluids is crucial in treating sepsis to maintain blood pressure and perfusion. Obtaining a wound specimen for culture (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority at this moment. Transferring the client to the ICU (Choice C) can be considered after stabilizing the client. Assessing the client's core temperature (Choice D) is not the immediate priority compared to addressing the signs of sepsis and poor perfusion.

2. The mother of a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) asks why her child must be kept NPO. Which response would be the most correct?

• A. The epinephrine given causes nausea and vomiting.
• B. The child is being hydrated with IV fluids.
• C. The child is not hungry.
• D. The child's rapid respirations pose a risk for aspiration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because rapid respirations predispose to aspiration in a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis. Choice A is incorrect because epinephrine does not directly relate to the need for NPO status. Choice B is incorrect as hydration with IV fluids is not the primary reason for keeping the child NPO. Choice C is incorrect as the child being hungry is not the main concern when keeping a child NPO in this situation.

3. A client who had a radical neck dissection returns to the surgical unit with 2 JP drains in the right side of the incision. One JP tube is open and has minimal drainage. Which action should the nurse take to increase drainage into the JP?

• A. Reinforce the incisional dressings and assess behind the neck for drainage.
• B. Place the client in a right lateral side-lying position and elevate the head of the bed.
• C. Irrigate the JP tubing with 1 ml NSS, then close the opening with its tab.
• D. Compress the bulb with the tab open and then reinsert the tab into its opening.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Compressing the bulb with the tab open creates suction, which helps increase drainage into the JP drain. This action can aid in removing accumulated fluids from the surgical site. Reinforcing the incisional dressings and assessing behind the neck for drainage (Choice A) is not directly related to increasing drainage into the JP. Placing the client in a right lateral side-lying position and elevating the head of the bed (Choice B) may not directly impact drainage into the JP drain. Irrigating the JP tubing with 1 ml NSS and then closing the opening with its tab (Choice C) is unnecessary and could introduce contaminants into the drain.

4. When is the best time to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement?

• A. Before meals and snacks
• B. Before bedtime
• C. Early in the morning
• D. After meals and snacks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement before meals and snacks. This timing is crucial as it allows the enzymes to assist in the digestion of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins that are consumed during the meals. Administering the replacement after meals and snacks would not be effective as the enzymes need to be present in the digestive system when food is consumed. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the optimal timing for pancreatic enzyme replacement administration.

5. To assess the quality of an adult client’s pain, what approach should the nurse use?

• A. Ask the client to rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
• B. Ask the client to describe the pain.
• C. Observe the client’s nonverbal cues.
• D. Determine the client’s pain tolerance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct approach for assessing the quality of an adult client's pain is to ask the client to describe the pain. By doing so, the nurse gains valuable information about the quality, location, and nature of the pain directly from the client. This approach allows for a more comprehensive understanding of the pain experience. Choice A, asking the client to rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10, focuses more on intensity rather than quality. Choice C, observing the client's nonverbal cues, can provide additional information but may not fully capture the client's subjective experience of pain. Choice D, determining the client's pain tolerance, is not directly related to assessing the quality of pain but rather to how much pain a client can endure.

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