a unlicensed assistive personnel uap reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 1038f blood pressure
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Medical Surgical HESI 2023

1. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103.8°F, blood pressure 90/70, pulse 124 beats/min, and respirations of 28 breaths/min. When the nurse assesses the client's findings, they include a mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of sepsis, indicated by a high temperature, low blood pressure, rapid heart rate, and increased respiratory rate. Mottled skin appearance and confusion are also signs of poor perfusion. Initiating IV fluids is crucial in treating sepsis to maintain blood pressure and perfusion. Obtaining a wound specimen for culture (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority at this moment. Transferring the client to the ICU (Choice C) can be considered after stabilizing the client. Assessing the client's core temperature (Choice D) is not the immediate priority compared to addressing the signs of sepsis and poor perfusion.

2. Which other congenital defects are common in children with Down syndrome?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heart defects. Many children with Down syndrome are born with congenital heart defects. These heart abnormalities are more prevalent in individuals with Down syndrome than in the general population. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they may be congenital defects in children, they are not commonly associated with Down syndrome. Hypospadias is a urogenital condition, pyloric stenosis affects the stomach, and hip dysplasia involves the hip joint, but these are not typically seen as frequently as heart defects in children with Down syndrome.

3. The parents of a child who has had a myringotomy are instructed by the nurse to place the child in which position?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the child on the affected side after a myringotomy facilitates ear drainage. This position helps prevent accumulation of fluids in the ear canal, aiding in the healing process. Placing the child in the supine position (Choice A) or on the unaffected side (Choice C) may not be as effective in promoting drainage. The Trendelenburg's position (Choice D) with the head lower than the body is used for conditions requiring increased venous return, not for post-myringotomy care.

4. Which of the following is a priority assessment for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hearing acuity. Vancomycin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can result in hearing loss. Monitoring the client's hearing acuity is crucial to detect any early signs of ototoxicity. Assessing respiratory rate, blood pressure, and urine output are important assessments in general patient care but are not the priority when specifically monitoring for vancomycin-induced ototoxicity.

5. A client who experienced partial-thickness burns with over 50% body surface area (BSA) 2 weeks ago suddenly becomes restless and agitated.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a burn patient with sudden restlessness and agitation, it is crucial to consider hypoxia or other critical conditions. As such, notifying the rapid response team is the most appropriate action to ensure prompt assessment and intervention. Increasing room temperature (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario. While monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is important, the sudden change in behavior warrants immediate action. Assessing oxygen saturation (Choice B) is a step in the right direction, but involving the rapid response team ensures a comprehensive evaluation and timely management of the patient's condition.

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