Nursing Elites

1. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103.8°F, blood pressure 90/70, pulse 124 beats/min, and respirations of 28 breaths/min. When the nurse assesses the client's findings, they include a mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.
• B. Initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids.
• C. Transfer the client to the ICU.
• D. Assess the client's core temperature.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of sepsis, indicated by a high temperature, low blood pressure, rapid heart rate, and increased respiratory rate. Mottled skin appearance and confusion are also signs of poor perfusion. Initiating IV fluids is crucial in treating sepsis to maintain blood pressure and perfusion. Obtaining a wound specimen for culture (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority at this moment. Transferring the client to the ICU (Choice C) can be considered after stabilizing the client. Assessing the client's core temperature (Choice D) is not the immediate priority compared to addressing the signs of sepsis and poor perfusion.

2. A client who took a camping vacation two weeks ago in a country with a tropical climate comes to the clinic describing vague symptoms and diarrhea for the past week. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the HCP?

• A. Weakness and fatigue
• B. Intestinal cramping
• C. Weight loss
• D. Jaundiced sclera

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important finding to report to the healthcare provider is a jaundiced sclera. Jaundice suggests liver involvement, which can be a sign of a serious underlying condition. Weakness and fatigue, intestinal cramping, and weight loss are important symptoms, but jaundice indicates a more urgent issue that needs immediate attention.

3. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Calculate total intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.

4. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed sucralfate. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

• A. Neutralizes stomach acid
• B. Decreases gastric acid secretion
• C. Covers the ulcer site and protects it from acid
• D. Improves gastric motility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Covers the ulcer site and protects it from acid. Sucralfate works by forming a protective barrier over ulcers, shielding them from stomach acid and promoting healing. Choice A, neutralizing stomach acid, is incorrect as sucralfate does not neutralize acid but acts as a physical barrier. Choice B, decreasing gastric acid secretion, is not the mechanism of action of sucralfate. Choice D, improving gastric motility, is unrelated to sucralfate's action on peptic ulcers.

5. A client who is experiencing respiratory distress is admitted with respiratory acidosis. Which pathophysiological process supports the client’s respiratory acidosis?

• A. Low oxygen levels are present in the blood.
• B. High levels of carbon dioxide have accumulated in the blood.
• C. Increased bicarbonate levels are causing alkalosis.
• D. Respiratory rate is increased, causing hyperventilation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: High levels of carbon dioxide in the blood lead to respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation. The correct answer is B. In respiratory acidosis, the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood occurs due to inadequate exhalation, leading to acidosis. Choice A is incorrect as low oxygen levels are related to hypoxemia, not respiratory acidosis. Choice C is incorrect as increased bicarbonate levels would lead to alkalosis, not acidosis. Choice D is incorrect as an increased respiratory rate causing hyperventilation would actually help decrease carbon dioxide levels, not lead to respiratory acidosis.

Similar Questions