Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What do these symptoms indicate?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
• C. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)
• D. Insulin shock

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are classic signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which occurs due to a combination of hyperglycemia and ketone production. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is characterized by low blood sugar levels, leading to symptoms like confusion, shakiness, and sweating, which are different from the symptoms described in the scenario. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) (Choice C) typically presents with severe hyperglycemia, dehydration, and altered mental status, rather than the triad of symptoms mentioned. Insulin shock (Choice D) refers to a severe hypoglycemic reaction due to excessive insulin, manifesting with confusion, sweating, and rapid heartbeat, not the symptoms seen in the client with diabetes mellitus described in this scenario.

2. The nurse is reviewing blood pressure readings for a group of clients on a medical unit. Which client is at the highest risk for complications related to hypertension?

• A. Post-menopausal Caucasian female who overeats and is 20% above her ideal body weight.
• B. Young adult Hispanic female who has hemoglobin at 11 g/dl (110 g/L) and drinks beer daily.
• C. Older adult who consumes a diet of smoked, cured, and pickled foods.
• D. Middle-aged African-American male who has a serum creatinine level of 2.9 mg/dL (256.4 micromol/L).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An elevated serum creatinine level indicates kidney damage, which significantly increases the risk of complications from hypertension. High blood pressure can damage the kidneys over time, leading to impaired kidney function. Choices A, B, and C do not directly correlate with increased risk of complications related to hypertension. Choice A focuses on obesity and overeating, Choice B on anemia and alcohol consumption, and Choice C on a diet high in sodium and nitrates, none of which are as directly related to hypertension complications as kidney damage.

3. The nurse instructs the mother of a child with a ventricular septal defect that she can expect the child to become cyanotic when the child does what?

• A. Experiences an elevation in temperature.
• B. Sleeps on the left side.
• C. Cries vigorously.
• D. Eats.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cries vigorously. When the child cries vigorously, it increases the pressure in the right ventricle, allowing unoxygenated blood to enter the circulating volume, leading to cyanosis. This occurs due to the shunting of blood from the right side of the heart to the left side through the ventricular septal defect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly impact the pressure in the right ventricle, which is crucial in causing cyanosis in this scenario.

4. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately
• B. Take the medication with antacids to reduce stomach upset
• C. Discontinue the medication if you feel drowsy
• D. Increase the dosage if you experience an aura

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately.' Phenytoin can cause blood dyscrasias, which can manifest as a sore throat or fever. These symptoms could indicate a serious side effect that requires immediate medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with antacids as they can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin abruptly can lead to rebound seizures; drowsiness is a common side effect that may improve with time. Choice D is incorrect because adjusting the dosage of phenytoin should only be done under healthcare provider supervision, not based on experiencing an aura.

5. A client is receiving a secondary infusion of erythromycin 1 gram in 100 mL dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to be infused in 45 minutes. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 100 mL/hour.
• B. 125 mL/hour.
• C. 133 mL/hour.
• D. 150 mL/hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To infuse 100 mL in 45 minutes, the infusion rate should be set to 133 mL/hour (100 mL / 0.75 hours). This calculation is obtained by dividing the total volume to be infused by the total time for infusion (100 mL / 0.75 hours = 133 mL/hour). Therefore, choice C is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the infusion rate required to deliver the medication within the specified time frame.

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