Nursing Elites

1. Which neonatal complications are associated with hypertension in the mother?

• A. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) and prematurity.
• B. Seizures and cerebral hemorrhage.
• C. Hepatic or renal dysfunction.
• D. Placental abruption and DIC.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neonatal complications associated with maternal hypertension are primarily due to placental insufficiency. The correct answer is A, which includes Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR) and prematurity. These complications arise from inadequate blood flow to the fetus, leading to growth restriction and premature birth. Choices B, seizures, and cerebral hemorrhage are more commonly maternal complications rather than neonatal ones. Choice C, hepatic or renal dysfunction, pertains to maternal complications of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, not neonatal issues. Choice D, placental abruption, and Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) are conditions linked to maternal morbidity and mortality, not neonatal complications.

2. What is the primary role of meiosis in the production of sperm and ova?

• A. To reduce the chromosome number by half
• B. To increase the chromosome number
• C. To create identical copies of chromosomes
• D. To repair damaged chromosomes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Meiosis is a type of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half, resulting in the formation of sperm and ova. Choice B is incorrect because meiosis does not increase the chromosome number. Choice C is incorrect because meiosis creates genetically diverse gametes, not identical copies of chromosomes. Choice D is incorrect because meiosis does not primarily function to repair damaged chromosomes.

3. A woman gave birth to a 7-pound, 6-ounce infant girl 1 hour ago. The birth was vaginal and the estimated blood loss (EBL) was 1500 ml. When evaluating the woman’s vital signs, which finding would be of greatest concern to the nurse?

• A. Temperature 37.9°C, heart rate 120 beats per minute (bpm), respirations 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg.
• B. Temperature 37.4°C, heart rate 88 bpm, respirations 36 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 126/68 mm Hg.
• C. Temperature 38°C, heart rate 80 bpm, respirations 16 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 110/80 mm Hg.
• D. Temperature 36.8°C, heart rate 60 bpm, respirations 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An estimated blood loss (EBL) of 1500 ml following a vaginal birth is significant and can lead to hypovolemia. The vital signs provided in option A (Temperature 37.9°C, heart rate 120 bpm, respirations 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg) indicate tachycardia and hypotension, which are concerning signs of hypovolemia due to excessive blood loss. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in response to decreased blood volume, and hypotension indicates inadequate perfusion. Options B, C, and D do not exhibit the same level of concern for hypovolemia. Option B shows tachypnea, which can be a result of pain or anxiety postpartum. Option C and D have vital signs within normal limits, which are not indicative of the body's response to significant blood loss.

4. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 148/94 mm Hg
• B. Respiratory rate 14/min
• C. Urinary output 20 mL/hr
• D. 2+ deep tendon reflexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate, a urinary output of 20 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity. Adequate urinary output is crucial for eliminating excess magnesium and preventing toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation. A blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg is elevated but expected in a client with preeclampsia. A respiratory rate of 14/min is within the normal range. 2+ deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate and are not a cause for concern unless they progress to hyperreflexia or clonus.

5. A client who is receiving prenatal care is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?

• A. Group B strep culture
• B. 1-hour glucose tolerance test
• C. Rubella titer
• D. Blood type and Rh

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1-hour glucose tolerance test. At around 24-28 weeks of gestation, a pregnant individual is typically screened for gestational diabetes. The 1-hour glucose tolerance test helps in identifying elevated blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Choice A, Group B strep culture, is not typically performed at the 24-week appointment but later in the third trimester to screen for Group B streptococcus colonization. Choice C, Rubella titer, is usually checked early in pregnancy to determine immunity to rubella. Choice D, Blood type and Rh, is important for determining the client's blood type and Rh status, but it is usually done earlier in pregnancy and not specifically at the 24-week appointment.

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