which of the following statements is true of sickle cell anemia

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Maternity HESI Test Bank

1. Which of the following statements is true of sickle-cell anemia?

A. It is typically managed with treatments such as pain relief medications.
B. It is caused by a mutation in the beta-globin gene.
C. It leads to the obstruction of small blood vessels and decreased oxygen delivery.
D. It is more prevalent in individuals of African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, and Indian descent.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sickle-cell anemia results from a mutation in the beta-globin gene, causing red blood cells to become sickle-shaped. These misshapen cells can obstruct small blood vessels, leading to reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sickle-cell anemia is typically managed with treatments such as pain relief medications, hydration, and in severe cases, blood transfusions. It is caused by a specific mutation in the beta-globin gene, not by the inability to metabolize phenylalanine. Additionally, sickle-cell anemia is more prevalent in individuals of African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, and Indian descent, not exclusive to any specific gender.

2. After meiosis, each new cell nucleus contains _____ chromosomes.

A. 46
B. 35
C. 23
D. 12

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After meiosis, each resulting cell contains 23 chromosomes. Meiosis is a process that involves two sequential divisions resulting in four daughter cells, each with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. In humans, the parent cell has 46 chromosomes (diploid), and after meiosis, the resulting cells (sperm or ova) have 23 chromosomes (haploid). Choice A (46 chromosomes) is incorrect because this is the number of chromosomes in a human diploid cell before meiosis. Choices B (35 chromosomes) and D (12 chromosomes) are incorrect as they do not represent the correct number of chromosomes after meiosis in human cells.

3. A client at 20 weeks of gestation has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A. Thick, White Vaginal Discharge
B. Urinary Frequency
C. Vulvar Lesions
D. Malodorous Discharge

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Malodorous discharge is a common symptom of trichomoniasis caused by the Trichomonas vaginalis parasite. It is typically described as frothy, greenish-yellow, and malodorous. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other conditions. Thick, white vaginal discharge is more characteristic of a yeast infection; urinary frequency may be seen in urinary tract infections; and vulvar lesions are commonly seen in herpes simplex virus infections.

4. Humans begin life as a single cell that divides repeatedly. This cell is known as a(n):

A. zygote.
B. gonadotrope.
C. embryo.
D. chromaffin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A zygote is the correct answer. It is the initial cell formed when a sperm cell fertilizes an egg cell, marking the beginning of human development. Choice B, gonadotrope, is incorrect as it refers to a type of hormone-secreting cell in the pituitary gland. Choice C, embryo, is incorrect as it is the stage of development after the zygote has implanted into the uterine wall and undergone initial cell divisions. Choice D, chromaffin, is incorrect as it refers to cells found in the adrenal medulla that produce and store catecholamines.

5. Is a low sperm count or lack of sperm the most common infertility problem in men?

A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. Rarely
D. Never

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A low sperm count or lack of sperm is indeed one of the most common causes of infertility in men. Factors such as hormonal imbalances, genetic issues, reproductive anatomy problems, and lifestyle factors can also contribute to male infertility. Choice B is incorrect because a low sperm count is a prevalent issue among men facing infertility, making it a common problem. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the prevalence of low sperm count as a cause of infertility in men.