Nursing Elites

1. Daisy was always unusually short for her age. She was unable to conceive a child after marriage, and upon visiting a doctor, she was prescribed estrogen replacement therapy. Daisy is most likely suffering from:

• A. Phenylketonuria (PKU).
• B. Cystic fibrosis.
• C. Turner syndrome.
• D. Huntington’s disease (HD).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Daisy's symptoms of short stature and infertility, along with the prescription of estrogen replacement therapy, are indicative of Turner syndrome. Turner syndrome is a genetic condition in which a female is partially or completely missing one X chromosome. This results in short stature, infertility, and other physical characteristics. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder caused by a mutation in the gene responsible for the breakdown of the amino acid phenylalanine. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder affecting the respiratory and digestive systems. Huntington's disease (HD) is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects muscle coordination and leads to cognitive decline.

2. A client in labor requests nonpharmacological pain management. Which of the following nursing actions promotes client comfort?

• A. Assisting the client into a squatting position
• B. Having the client lie in a supine position
• C. Applying fundal pressure during contractions
• D. Encouraging the client to void every 6 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client into a squatting position promotes comfort during labor. This position can help relieve pain by utilizing gravity, allowing the pelvic outlet to widen, and potentially facilitating the progress of labor. Lying in a supine position (Choice B) can hinder labor progression and increase discomfort. Applying fundal pressure (Choice C) can be inappropriate and may cause harm as it is not routinely recommended during labor. Encouraging the client to void every 6 hours (Choice D) is important for bladder management but does not directly address pain relief during labor.

3. A newborn assessment reveals spina bifida occulta. Which maternal factor should the nurse identify as having the greatest impact on the development of this newborn complication?

• A. Tobacco use.
• B. Folic acid deficiency.
• C. Short interval between pregnancies.
• D. Preeclampsia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy is strongly associated with neural tube defects like spina bifida occulta. Adequate folic acid intake before and during early pregnancy significantly reduces the risk of such complications. Tobacco use (Choice A) is linked to other adverse outcomes but not specifically spina bifida occulta. Short intervals between pregnancies (Choice C) can increase the risk of preterm birth and low birth weight but are not directly linked to spina bifida occulta. Preeclampsia (Choice D) is a hypertensive disorder that poses risks to both the mother and baby but is not the primary factor contributing to spina bifida occulta development.

4. When discussing risk factors for gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) with a group of pregnant clients, which ethnicity should the nurse identify as having the lowest incidence of GDM?

• A. Asian
• B. Non-Hispanic White American
• C. Hispanic
• D. African American

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Non-Hispanic White Americans have the lowest incidence of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) compared to other ethnicities. This is because GDM is more prevalent among certain ethnic groups, such as Asian, Hispanic, and African American populations. Asian individuals have an increased risk of developing GDM due to genetic factors, while Hispanic and African American populations have higher incidences of GDM due to lifestyle and genetic predispositions. Therefore, the correct answer is B, as Non-Hispanic White Americans generally have a lower risk of developing GDM.

5. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 148/94 mm Hg
• B. Respiratory rate 14/min
• C. Urinary output 20 mL/hr
• D. 2+ deep tendon reflexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate, a urinary output of 20 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity. Adequate urinary output is crucial for eliminating excess magnesium and preventing toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation. A blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg is elevated but expected in a client with preeclampsia. A respiratory rate of 14/min is within the normal range. 2+ deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate and are not a cause for concern unless they progress to hyperreflexia or clonus.

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