Nursing Elites

1. Which individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia?

• A. A 40-year-old first-grade teacher who works with underprivileged children.
• B. A 75-year-old retired secretary with exercise-induced wheezing.
• C. A 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes.
• D. A 35-year-old aerobics instructor who skips meals and eats only vegetables.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes. This individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to factors such as homelessness, alcoholism, and smoking, which weaken the immune system and make them more susceptible to respiratory infections. Choice A is incorrect as working with underprivileged children, while potentially exposing the individual to various illnesses, does not directly increase the risk of pneumonia. Choice B is less likely as exercise-induced wheezing may suggest asthma but does not directly correlate with pneumonia risk. Choice D, an aerobics instructor who eats only vegetables and skips meals, does not have the same level of risk factors for pneumonia as the homeless person in choice C.

2. A client has just returned to the medical-surgical unit following a segmental lung resection. After assessing the client, the first nursing action would be to:

• A. Administer pain medication
• B. Suction excessive tracheobronchial secretions
• C. Assist the client to turn, deep breathe, and cough
• D. Monitor oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a segmental lung resection, the priority nursing action should be to suction excessive tracheobronchial secretions. This helps in preventing airway obstruction from secretions, ensuring the patency of the airway and optimizing respiratory function. Administering pain medication can be important but addressing airway clearance takes precedence. Assisting the client to turn, deep breathe, and cough is essential for respiratory hygiene but not the first action immediately post-op. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial, but ensuring airway clearance is the priority to prevent complications.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with status epilepticus. The most important nursing assessment of this client is

• A. Intravenous fluid infusion
• B. Level of consciousness
• C. Pulse and respirations
• D. Extremities for injuries

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In status epilepticus, the most crucial nursing assessment is the level of consciousness. Assessing the client's level of consciousness is vital as prolonged seizures can result in hypoxia, brain damage, and require immediate intervention. Pulse and respirations (choice C) are important assessments, but in status epilepticus, the priority is to monitor the client's neurological status. Checking intravenous fluid infusion (choice A) and extremities for injuries (choice D) are not the primary assessments needed in managing a client experiencing status epilepticus.

4. A pre-term baby develops nasal flaring, cyanosis, and diminished breath sounds on one side. The provider's diagnosis is spontaneous pneumothorax. Which procedure should the nurse prepare for first?

• A. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• B. Insertion of a chest tube
• C. Oxygen therapy
• D. Assisted ventilation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insertion of a chest tube. In a case of spontaneous pneumothorax, the primary intervention is to insert a chest tube. This procedure allows the trapped air to escape from the pleural space, relieving pressure and enabling the lung to re-expand. Choices A, C, and D are not the initial interventions for spontaneous pneumothorax. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is indicated for cardiac arrest, oxygen therapy may provide supportive care but does not address the underlying issue of trapped air in the pleural space, and assisted ventilation may be needed later but is not the first-line treatment for a pneumothorax.

5. A client with schizophrenia is receiving haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Extrapyramidal symptoms
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Extrapyramidal symptoms. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms such as tardive dyskinesia and akathisia. These side effects are common with the use of typical antipsychotics. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common side effect of haloperidol. Choice B, Hypotension, is also not a typical side effect associated with haloperidol use. Choice D, Hyperglycemia, is not directly linked to haloperidol administration, as it is more commonly associated with other medications like atypical antipsychotics or certain medical conditions.

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