HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice
1. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to perform before ambulating a client with a history of syncope?
- A. Pedal pulses
- B. Breath sounds
- C. Oxygen saturation
- D. Blood pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Blood pressure.' It is crucial to check the client's blood pressure before ambulating them, especially if they have a history of syncope. Monitoring blood pressure helps to prevent falls by ensuring that the client's blood pressure is stable enough to tolerate the activity. Choices A, B, and C are not as critical in this scenario. Checking pedal pulses, breath sounds, or oxygen saturation is important but not as crucial as assessing blood pressure when preparing to ambulate a client with a history of syncope.
2. After a motor vehicle collision, a client is admitted to the medical unit with acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis). Which prescription should the nurse implement?
- A. Determine serum glucose levels
- B. Withhold potassium additives to IV fluids
- C. Give IV corticosteroid replacement
- D. Prepare to initiate IV vasopressors
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis) following a motor vehicle collision, the priority intervention is to administer IV corticosteroid replacement. This is crucial to manage the crisis by replacing the deficient cortisol. Determining serum glucose levels (Choice A) may be important but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Withholding potassium additives to IV fluids (Choice B) is not indicated and may exacerbate electrolyte imbalances. Initiating IV vasopressors (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for acute adrenal insufficiency and should be reserved for managing hypotension that is unresponsive to corticosteroid therapy.
3. A high school football player comes to the clinic complaining of severe acne. The mother reports recent behavior changes, including irritability and suspiciousness of friends. The nurse’s assessment reveals an elevated blood pressure. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Encourage the client to see a dermatologist
- B. Refer the adolescent to a substance abuse program
- C. Suggest a low-salt, low-fat, and caffeine-free diet
- D. Inquire about a possible use of anabolic steroids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the high school football player presenting with severe acne, behavior changes, elevated blood pressure, and suspicion of friends suggests the possible use of anabolic steroids. Anabolic steroid use can lead to such symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should first inquire about the possible use of anabolic steroids to address the root cause of the presenting issues. Encouraging the client to see a dermatologist (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the underlying cause is crucial first. Referring the adolescent to a substance abuse program (Choice B) is premature without confirming steroid use. Suggesting a low-salt, low-fat, and caffeine-free diet (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation where a serious issue like anabolic steroid use needs immediate attention.
4. When the client asks the nurse if they have ever been with someone when they died, what is the nurse’s best response?
- A. “Yes, I have. Do you have some questions about dying?â€
- B. “Several times. Now, let’s get your dressing changed.â€
- C. “A few times. It was peaceful and there was no pain.â€
- D. “Yes, but you’re doing great. Are you concerned about dying?â€
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the best response as it acknowledges the client's question and opens the door for further discussion about dying if the client wishes to. It shows empathy and encourages the client to express any concerns they may have. Choices B and C do not directly address the client's question or offer an opportunity for him to explore his concerns. Choice D acknowledges the experience but fails to address the client's question directly and does not encourage further discussion.
5. A client who sustained a pellet gun injury with a resulting comminuted skull fracture is admitted overnight for observation. Which assessment finding obtained two hours after admission necessitates immediate intervention?
- A. The client complains of a throbbing headache rated 10 (on a scale of 1 to 10)
- B. The client repeatedly falls asleep while talking with the nurse
- C. The entry site has a slow trickle of bright red blood
- D. The entry site appears reddened and edematous
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with a pellet gun injury and a comminuted skull fracture, repeatedly falling asleep while talking with the nurse is a concerning sign. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or a deteriorating condition, requiring immediate intervention. The other options, such as a throbbing headache (choice A), slow trickle of bright red blood at the entry site (choice C), or reddened and edematous entry site (choice D), while important to monitor, do not directly indicate a need for immediate intervention as much as the client falling asleep repeatedly while talking does.
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