Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is measuring the output of an infant admitted for vomiting and diarrhea. During a 12-hour shift, the infant drinks 4 ounces of Pedialyte, vomits 25 ml, and voids twice. The dry diaper weighs 105 grams. Which computer documentation should the nurse enter in the infant’s record?

• A. Subtract vomitus from 120 ml Pedialyte, then document 95 ml oral intake.
• B. Compare the difference between the infant’s current weight and admission weight.
• C. Document on the flow sheet that the infant voided twice and vomited 25 ml.
• D. Calculate the difference in wet and dry diapers and document 80 ml urine.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to document on the flow sheet that the infant voided twice and vomited 25 ml. This choice accurately reflects the need for accurate documentation of intake and output, essential for monitoring the infant's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because the oral intake should not be calculated by subtracting vomitus from the oral intake. Choice B is incorrect because it does not address the specific documentation related to the infant's output. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on calculating urine output based on diaper weight, which is not the primary concern in this scenario.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with pulmonary edema who is reporting two-pillow orthopnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. The nurse identifies rapid shallow respirations and the use of accessory muscles. Which action should the nurse include in the client’s plan of care?

• A. Administer the prescribed amiodarone (Cordarone) immediately
• B. Institute a daily fluid restriction while the client is in the hospital
• C. Perform a blood draw for serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels
• D. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position to facilitate perfusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering amiodarone is appropriate if arrhythmias are present in the context of pulmonary edema, as it helps manage irregular heart rhythms. In this case, the client is experiencing symptoms related to respiratory distress, and amiodarone can address potential arrhythmias contributing to the condition. Options B and D are not directly related to managing symptoms of pulmonary edema and do not address the underlying cause of the client's distress. Option C, performing blood tests for cardiac enzymes, is important for assessing possible myocardial damage but does not directly address the immediate respiratory distress associated with pulmonary edema.

3. The public health nurse received funding to initiate a primary prevention program in the community. Which program best fits the nurse’s proposal?

• A. Case management and screening for clients with HIV.
• B. Regional relocation center for earthquake victims.
• C. Vitamin supplements for high-risk pregnant women.
• D. Lead screening for children in low-income housing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin supplements for high-risk pregnant women. This option aligns with primary prevention by preventing deficiencies before they occur, which is a key aspect of primary prevention. Providing vitamin supplements to high-risk pregnant women can help prevent birth defects and complications. Choices A, B, and D do not align with primary prevention strategies. Case management and screening for clients with HIV (Choice A) is more of a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection and management. A regional relocation center for earthquake victims (Choice B) is focused on addressing the aftermath of a disaster rather than preventing it. Lead screening for children in low-income housing (Choice D) is more about early detection and intervention rather than primary prevention.

4. A male client with cirrhosis has jaundice and pruritus. He tells the nurse that he has been soaking in hot baths at night with no relief of his discomfort. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Explain that the symptoms are caused by liver damage and can be managed
• B. Obtain a PRN prescription for an analgesic that the client can use for symptom relief
• C. Encourage the client to use cooler water and apply oil-based lotion after soaking
• D. Suggest that the client take brief showers and apply oil-based lotion after showering

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cooler water and oil-based lotion can help relieve pruritus and improve comfort in clients with cirrhosis experiencing jaundice and pruritus. Hot baths can exacerbate itching, so it is important to suggest cooler showers instead. Choice A is incorrect because symptoms like pruritus can be managed. Choice B is not the most appropriate initial intervention for pruritus related to liver disease. Choice C suggests the use of calamine lotion, which may not be as effective as oil-based lotion for relieving pruritus in this case.

5. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit, returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him 'feel bad.' In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

• A. Feed the client a snack
• B. Empty the urinary drainage bag
• C. Offer the client oral fluids
• D. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated blood pressure, if left uncontrolled, significantly increases the risk of stroke secondary to hemorrhage and other cardiovascular events. This condition can lead to serious complications due to the increased pressure on the blood vessels in the brain. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the potential pathophysiological consequences of uncontrolled hypertension and are not the primary concern in this scenario.

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