the nurse is measuring the output of an infant admitted for vomiting and diarrhea during a 12 hour shift the infant drinks 4 ounces of pedialyte vomit
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam 2024

1. The nurse is measuring the output of an infant admitted for vomiting and diarrhea. During a 12-hour shift, the infant drinks 4 ounces of Pedialyte, vomits 25 ml, and voids twice. The dry diaper weighs 105 grams. Which computer documentation should the nurse enter in the infant’s record?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to document on the flow sheet that the infant voided twice and vomited 25 ml. This choice accurately reflects the need for accurate documentation of intake and output, essential for monitoring the infant's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because the oral intake should not be calculated by subtracting vomitus from the oral intake. Choice B is incorrect because it does not address the specific documentation related to the infant's output. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on calculating urine output based on diaper weight, which is not the primary concern in this scenario.

2. An adult male with a 6 cm thoracic aneurysm is being prepared for surgery. The nurse reports to the healthcare provider that the client’s blood pressure is 220/112 mmHg, so an antihypertensive agent is added to the client’s IV infusion. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A tearing, sharp pain between the shoulder blades may indicate aortic dissection, a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. This symptom is highly concerning in a patient with a thoracic aneurysm. Choice B is not as urgent as the pain symptom described in choice A. Choice C could indicate hematuria but is not as critical as the potential aortic dissection in choice A. Choice D, sinus tachycardia with PVCs, may be related to the patient's condition but is not as indicative of an immediate life-threatening situation as the tearing, sharp pain indicative of aortic dissection.

3. A male client approaches the nurse with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, “My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out.” The nurse recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is projecting his feelings of anger and frustration onto his roommate, attributing his own feelings to the other person. Projection is a defense mechanism where individuals attribute their thoughts, feelings, or motives onto another person. In this scenario, the client is displacing his anger onto his roommate, thereby using projection as a defense mechanism. Denial (choice A) is refusing to acknowledge an aspect of reality. Splitting (choice B) involves viewing people as all good or all bad. Rationalization (choice D) is creating logical explanations to justify unacceptable behavior.

4. Following the evacuation of a subdural hematoma, an older adult develops an infection. The client is transferred to the neuro intensive care unit with a temperature of 101.8 F (39.3 C) axillary, pulse of 180 beats/minute, and a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. What is the priority intervention to include in this client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority intervention for the client in this scenario is to maintain intravenous (IV) access. Given the client's condition with infection, elevated temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, it is crucial to ensure IV access for administering antibiotics, fluids, and other medications promptly. This can help manage the infection, stabilize hemodynamics, and support the client's hydration and medication needs. Checking neuro vital signs, although important, is secondary to addressing the immediate need for IV access. Keeping the suture line clean and dry is important for wound care but not the priority when dealing with a systemic infection and hemodynamic instability.

5. A client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line has a fever. What client assessment is most important for the nurse to perform?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the PICC line site for inflammation. When a client with a PICC line develops a fever, it could indicate an infection related to the catheter. Assessing the PICC line site for signs of inflammation, such as redness, warmth, swelling, or drainage, is crucial in identifying a potential infection early. Choice B is incorrect because increasing fluid intake is not directly related to assessing a PICC line for infection. Choice C is not the most appropriate assessment in this situation as monitoring blood pressure may not directly help in identifying the cause of the fever. Choice D is unrelated to the assessment of a fever in a client with a PICC line.

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A client taking clopidogrel reports the onset of diarrhea. Which nursing action should the nurse implement first?
An older male client with a history of type 1 diabetes has not felt well for the past few days and arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping and vomiting. He is lethargic, moderately confused, and cannot remember when he took his last dose of insulin or ate last. What action should the nurse implement first?
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