HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. The nurse is assessing a first-day postpartum client. Which finding is most indicative of a postpartum infection?
- A. Oral temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C)
- B. Blood pressure of 122/74 mmHg
- C. Moderate amount of foul-smelling lochia
- D. White blood count of 19,000/mm³ (19x10^9/L SI units)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A foul-smelling lochia is indicative of a postpartum infection, such as endometritis. Foul-smelling lochia suggests the presence of infection due to the breakdown of tissue by bacteria, leading to the malodor. An oral temperature elevation and an elevated white blood cell count are nonspecific and can be present in various conditions other than postpartum infections, making them less indicative. A blood pressure within normal limits is not typically associated with postpartum infections.
2. An adult male is admitted to the intensive care unit because he experienced a sudden onset of sharp chest pain and shortness of breath earlier today. Following an emergent pulmonary angiogram, the client is diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Monitor signs of increased bleeding
- B. Instruct on the use of incentive spirometry
- C. Observe for confusion and restlessness
- D. Administer intravenous opioids for severe pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism, the most critical intervention is to monitor for signs of increased bleeding. Pulmonary embolism treatment often involves anticoagulation therapy, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or gastrointestinal bleeding is essential to prevent complications. Instructing on the use of incentive spirometry can be beneficial for preventing pulmonary complications but is not as urgent as monitoring for bleeding. Observing for confusion and restlessness may indicate hypoxia but is not the most crucial intervention in this scenario. Administering intravenous opioids for severe pain might be necessary but is not the priority compared to monitoring for bleeding, which is directly related to the treatment for pulmonary embolism.
3. An adult male with a 6 cm thoracic aneurysm is being prepared for surgery. The nurse reports to the healthcare provider that the client’s blood pressure is 220/112 mmHg, so an antihypertensive agent is added to the client’s IV infusion. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Reports a tearing, sharp pain between his shoulder blades
- B. Blood pressure reading of 200/100 mmHg 15 minutes later
- C. Rose-colored urine draining from the urinary catheter
- D. Sinus tachycardia with frequent premature ventricular beats (PVC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A tearing, sharp pain between the shoulder blades may indicate aortic dissection, a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. This symptom is highly concerning in a patient with a thoracic aneurysm. Choice B is not as urgent as the pain symptom described in choice A. Choice C could indicate hematuria but is not as critical as the potential aortic dissection in choice A. Choice D, sinus tachycardia with PVCs, may be related to the patient's condition but is not as indicative of an immediate life-threatening situation as the tearing, sharp pain indicative of aortic dissection.
4. The healthcare provider prescribes amoxicillin (Amoxil) 1.5 grams PO daily, in equally divided doses to be administered every 8 hours. The medication is available in a bottle labeled, “Amoxicillin (Amoxil) suspension 200 mg/5 ml.” How many ml should the nurse administer every 8 hours? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)
- A. 12.5
- B. 7.5
- C. 10.0
- D. 15.0
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the amount in ml that the nurse should administer every 8 hours, first, determine the amount of amoxicillin needed per dose. 1.5 grams daily divided by 3 doses equals 0.5 grams per dose. Since 0.5 grams is equivalent to 500 mg (1 gram = 1000 mg), and each 5 ml of the suspension contains 200 mg of amoxicillin, the nurse needs to administer (500 mg / 200 mg) * 5 ml = 12.5 ml every 8 hours. Therefore, the correct answer is 12.5 ml. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
5. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client receiving acyclovir (Zovirax) IV for treatment of herpes zoster (shingles)?
- A. Initiate cardiac telemetry monitoring
- B. Maintain continuous pulse oximetry
- C. Perform capillary glucose measurements
- D. Monitor serum creatinine levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monitor serum creatinine levels. Acyclovir can lead to nephrotoxicity, making it essential to monitor kidney function through serum creatinine levels. While cardiac telemetry monitoring (choice A) and maintaining continuous pulse oximetry (choice B) are important in certain conditions, they are not directly related to acyclovir therapy for herpes zoster. Performing capillary glucose measurements (choice C) is not a priority when administering acyclovir for herpes zoster. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is crucial to detect any potential renal issues early, as the drug's nephrotoxic potential requires close monitoring of kidney function.
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