HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. The nurse is assessing a first-day postpartum client. Which finding is most indicative of a postpartum infection?
- A. Oral temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C)
- B. Blood pressure of 122/74 mmHg
- C. Moderate amount of foul-smelling lochia
- D. White blood count of 19,000/mm³ (19x10^9/L SI units)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A foul-smelling lochia is indicative of a postpartum infection, such as endometritis. Foul-smelling lochia suggests the presence of infection due to the breakdown of tissue by bacteria, leading to the malodor. An oral temperature elevation and an elevated white blood cell count are nonspecific and can be present in various conditions other than postpartum infections, making them less indicative. A blood pressure within normal limits is not typically associated with postpartum infections.
2. The nurse is planning care for a client admitted with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which intervention has the highest priority for inclusion in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Record urine output every hour
- B. Monitor blood pressure frequently
- C. Evaluate neurological status
- D. Maintain seizure precautions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pheochromocytoma is associated with severe hypertension due to excessive catecholamine release. Monitoring blood pressure frequently is the priority intervention to assess for hypertensive crises and prevent complications like stroke, heart attack, or organ damage. While recording urine output every hour, evaluating neurological status, and maintaining seizure precautions are important aspects of care, they are not the highest priority in a client with pheochromocytoma.
3. When entering a client’s room to administer an 0900 IV antibiotic, the nurse finds that the client is engaged in sexual activity with a visitor. Which actions should the nurse implement?
- A. Ignore the behavior and administer the IV antibiotic
- B. Tell the client to stop the inappropriate behavior
- C. Leave the room and close the door quietly
- D. Complete an unusual occurrence report
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this situation is to leave the room and close the door quietly. This response respects the client's privacy, maintains professionalism, and avoids interrupting the client's personal moment. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the behavior is not appropriate and may invade the client's privacy further. Choice B is incorrect as it can embarrass the client and the visitor, breaching their privacy and dignity. Choice D is also incorrect as the immediate priority is to respect the client's privacy and address the situation discreetly.
4. Following the evacuation of a subdural hematoma, an older adult develops an infection. The client is transferred to the neuro intensive care unit with a temperature of 101.8 F (39.3 C) axillary, pulse of 180 beats/minute, and a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. What is the priority intervention to include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Confusion
- B. Check neuro vital signs every 4 hours.
- C. Maintain intravenous access.
- D. Keep the suture line clean and dry.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority intervention for the client in this scenario is to maintain intravenous (IV) access. Given the client's condition with infection, elevated temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, it is crucial to ensure IV access for administering antibiotics, fluids, and other medications promptly. This can help manage the infection, stabilize hemodynamics, and support the client's hydration and medication needs. Checking neuro vital signs, although important, is secondary to addressing the immediate need for IV access. Keeping the suture line clean and dry is important for wound care but not the priority when dealing with a systemic infection and hemodynamic instability.
5. The healthcare provider prescribes amoxicillin (Amoxil) 1.5 grams PO daily, in equally divided doses to be administered every 8 hours. The medication is available in a bottle labeled, “Amoxicillin (Amoxil) suspension 200 mg/5 ml.†How many ml should the nurse administer every 8 hours? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)
- A. 12.5
- B. 7.5
- C. 10.0
- D. 15.0
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the amount in ml that the nurse should administer every 8 hours, first, determine the amount of amoxicillin needed per dose. 1.5 grams daily divided by 3 doses equals 0.5 grams per dose. Since 0.5 grams is equivalent to 500 mg (1 gram = 1000 mg), and each 5 ml of the suspension contains 200 mg of amoxicillin, the nurse needs to administer (500 mg / 200 mg) * 5 ml = 12.5 ml every 8 hours. Therefore, the correct answer is 12.5 ml. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
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