Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, 'I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go home'. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Heparin prevents future clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely
• B. You seem to be concerned about the length of time it takes for Heparin to dissolve this clot
• C. Let me contact your surgeon and find out if Heparin IV therapy can be administered to you at home
• D. Why are you so anxious to leave the hospital when you know you are not well enough yet?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the best response because it educates the client about the role of heparin in preventing future clot formation rather than dissolving the existing clot. This helps the client understand the medication's function and the importance of closely monitoring for signs of bleeding, a common side effect of heparin therapy. Choice B acknowledges the client's concern but does not provide accurate information about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is premature as it suggests transitioning to home therapy without addressing the client's concerns or explaining heparin's purpose. Choice D does not address the client's statement and instead questions their desire to leave the hospital.

2. While assessing a client who is experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, the nurse observes periods of apnea. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Elevate the head of the client's bed
• B. Auscultate the client's breath sounds
• C. Measure the length of the apneic periods
• D. Suction the client's oropharynx

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a nurse observes periods of apnea in a client experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, measuring the length of the apneic periods is essential. This action helps in determining the severity of Cheyne-Stokes respirations by providing valuable information about the duration of interrupted breathing cycles. Elevating the head of the client's bed (Choice A) may be beneficial in some respiratory conditions but is not the priority in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Auscultating the client's breath sounds (Choice B) is a general assessment and may not directly address the issue of apnea in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Suctioning the client's oropharynx (Choice D) is not the initial intervention for managing Cheyne-Stokes respirations unless secretions are obstructing the airway.

3. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. It dissolves blood clots
• B. It prevents the blood from clotting
• C. It thins the blood
• D. It decreases the risk of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client’s teaching plan?

• A. Avoid all forms of sugar
• B. Check blood glucose levels once a week
• C. Rotate insulin injection sites
• D. Monitor urine ketone levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rotating insulin injection sites prevents lipodystrophy and ensures proper insulin absorption.

5. A male client admitted three days ago with respiratory failure is intubated, and 40% oxygen per facemask is initiated. Currently, his temperature is 99°F, capillary refill is less than 4 seconds, and respiratory effort is within normal limits. What outcome should the nurse evaluate to measure for successful extubation?

• A. Exhibits adequate tissue perfusion
• B. Remains free of injury
• C. Remains free of infection
• D. Maintains effective breathing pattern

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Successful extubation relies on the patient's ability to maintain an effective breathing pattern. This indicates that the patient can adequately oxygenate and ventilate without the need for mechanical support. Monitoring tissue perfusion, preventing infection, and ensuring safety are important but not directly related to the immediate criteria for successful extubation. Tissue perfusion, injury prevention, and infection control are crucial aspects of overall patient care but are not the primary factors to consider when evaluating readiness for extubation.

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