HESI LPN
HESI CAT
1. When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions
- B. Schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment
- C. Obtain a blood cortisol level before discharge
- D. Encourage the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed saxagliptin. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider.
- B. Take this medication with meals.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Report any signs of heart failure to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed saxagliptin, it is crucial to instruct them to report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider. Saxagliptin can lead to pancreatitis as a side effect, making it essential for clients to be vigilant about recognizing and reporting any related symptoms promptly for timely intervention and management. Choice B is incorrect because saxagliptin can be taken with or without meals. Choice C is not specifically associated with saxagliptin use. Choice D is incorrect as heart failure is not a common side effect of saxagliptin.
3. A client who had a radical neck dissection returns to the surgical unit with 2 JP drains in the right side of the incision. One JP tube is open and has minimal drainage. Which action should the nurse take to increase drainage into the JP?
- A. Reinforce the incisional dressings and assess behind the neck for drainage.
- B. Place the client in a right lateral side-lying position and elevate the head of the bed.
- C. Irrigate the JP tubing with 1 ml NSS, then close the opening with its tab.
- D. Compress the bulb with the tab open and then reinsert the tab into its opening.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Compressing the bulb with the tab open creates suction, which helps increase drainage into the JP drain. This action can aid in removing accumulated fluids from the surgical site. Reinforcing the incisional dressings and assessing behind the neck for drainage (Choice A) is not directly related to increasing drainage into the JP. Placing the client in a right lateral side-lying position and elevating the head of the bed (Choice B) may not directly impact drainage into the JP drain. Irrigating the JP tubing with 1 ml NSS and then closing the opening with its tab (Choice C) is unnecessary and could introduce contaminants into the drain.
4. After a 26-year-old gravida 4, para 0 experienced a spontaneous abortion at 9 weeks gestation, how should the nurse intervene after observing the client crying softly one hour post dilation and curettage (D&C)?
- A. Offer to call the social worker to discuss the possibility of adoption
- B. Reassure the client that the infertility specialist can help
- C. Express sorrow for the client's grief and offer to sit with her
- D. Chart the vital signs and amount of vaginal bleeding
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a traumatic experience like a spontaneous abortion, it is crucial for the nurse to provide emotional support. Expressing sorrow for the client's grief and offering to sit with her demonstrates empathy and allows the client to process her emotions. Options A and B focus on future possibilities and medical interventions, which may not be immediately appropriate. Option D, while important for monitoring the client's physical status, does not address the client's emotional needs at that moment.
5. A child has been admitted to the pediatric unit with a severe asthma attack. What type of acid-base imbalance should the nurse expect the child to develop?
- A. metabolic alkalosis due to insufficient production of acid metabolites
- B. respiratory alkalosis due to depressed respirations and retention of carbon dioxide
- C. respiratory acidosis due to impaired respirations and increased formation of carbonic acid
- D. metabolic acidosis due to the kidneys' inability to compensate for decreased carbonic acid formation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a severe asthma attack, the child is likely to develop respiratory acidosis. This occurs due to impaired respirations, leading to the retention of carbon dioxide and the formation of carbonic acid. Choice A is incorrect as metabolic alkalosis is not expected in this situation. Choice B is incorrect as respiratory alkalosis does not align with the scenario of impaired respirations in severe asthma attacks. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes metabolic acidosis, which is not typically associated with severe asthma attacks.