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1. When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions
- B. Schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment
- C. Obtain a blood cortisol level before discharge
- D. Encourage the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.
2. Which intervention should the nurse include in a long-term plan of care for a client with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?
- A. Reduce risk factors for infection
- B. Administer high-flow oxygen during sleep
- C. Limit fluid intake to reduce secretions
- D. Use diaphragmatic breathing to achieve better exhalation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Diaphragmatic breathing is a beneficial intervention for clients with COPD as it helps improve breathing efficiency and manage symptoms by promoting better air exchange in the lungs. It aids in achieving better exhalation, reducing air trapping, and enhancing overall lung function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. While reducing risk factors for infection is important for overall health, it is not a specific long-term intervention for COPD. Administering high-flow oxygen during sleep may be necessary in some cases but is not typically a long-term strategy for managing COPD. Limiting fluid intake to reduce secretions is not recommended as hydration is essential for individuals with COPD to maintain optimal respiratory function and prevent complications like mucus plugs.
3. A 70-year-old client is admitted to the hospital after 24 hours of acute diarrhea. To determine fluid status, which initial data is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Usual and current weight
- B. Color and amount of urine
- C. Number and frequency of stools
- D. Intake and output 24 hours prior to admission
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Usual and current weight. Weight changes are the most direct indicator of fluid status in a patient with acute diarrhea. Monitoring weight loss or gain can provide crucial information about fluid balance. Option B, color and amount of urine, though important for assessing renal function, is not as direct an indicator of fluid status as weight. Option C, number and frequency of stools, is relevant for assessing the severity of diarrhea but does not provide direct information on fluid status. Option D, intake and output 24 hours prior to admission, does not reflect the current fluid status and may not be accurate in a rapidly changing condition like acute diarrhea.
4. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?
- A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
- B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
- C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
- D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.
5. A woman with an anxiety disorder calls her obstetrician’s office and tells the nurse of increased anxiety since the normal vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. Since she is breastfeeding, she stopped taking her antianxiety medications, but thinks she may need to start taking them again because of her increased anxiety. What response is best for the nurse to provide this woman?
- A. Describe the safety of certain antianxiety medications during breastfeeding
- B. Encourage her to consider stress-relieving alternatives, such as deep breathing exercises
- C. Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding
- D. Explain that anxiety is a common response for the mother of a 3-week-old
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Some antianxiety medications are considered safe for use while breastfeeding, and the nurse should provide this information to alleviate the woman's concerns. Choice A has been corrected to focus on the safety of certain antianxiety medications during breastfeeding, which is more accurate. Choice B suggests stress-relieving alternatives, which may help but do not address the need for antianxiety medication if required. Choice D is incorrect because it minimizes the woman's concerns by dismissing her increased anxiety as a normal response.
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