Nursing Elites

1. When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions
• B. Schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment
• C. Obtain a blood cortisol level before discharge
• D. Encourage the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.

2. After successful resuscitation, a client is given propranolol and transferred to the Intensive Coronary Care Unit (ICCU). On admission, magnesium sulfate 4 grams IV in 250 ml D5W at one gram/hour. Which assessment findings require immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Dark amber urine draining via an indwelling catheter at a rate of 40 ml per hour
• B. Serum calcium of 9.0 mg/dl (2.2 mmol/L SI) and magnesium of 1.8 mg/dl or Eq/L (0.74 mmol/L SI)
• C. Sinus rhythm at 72 beats/minute and peripheral blood pressure of 99/62
• D. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A low respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute is indicative of possible magnesium toxicity, which can be a serious condition requiring immediate intervention. It is a critical finding that needs prompt attention to prevent further complications. The other options are not as urgent: A - dark amber urine may indicate dehydration but does not require immediate intervention, B - serum calcium and magnesium levels are within normal limits, C - sinus rhythm and blood pressure values are also within normal range and do not require immediate action.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left forearm. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the fistula is patent?

• A. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand
• B. The left radial pulse is 2+ bounding
• C. Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm
• D. Assessment of a bruit on the left forearm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm is the correct observation indicating that the AV fistula is patent. A thrill is a palpable vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the fistula, indicating the presence of blood flow. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the patency of the fistula. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand may indicate venous hypertension; a bounding radial pulse could suggest increased blood flow through an artery, but it does not confirm fistula patency; assessment of a bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, but it does not confirm patency.

4. Following a thyroidectomy, a client experiences tetany. The nurse should expect to administer which intravenous medication?

• A. Sodium iodide solution
• B. Levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid)
• C. Calcium gluconate
• D. Propranolol (Inderal)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a thyroidectomy, tetany can occur due to hypoparathyroidism, leading to low calcium levels. Therefore, the nurse should administer calcium gluconate intravenously to raise the calcium levels. Choice A, Sodium iodide solution, is incorrect as it is used for thyroid conditions, not for treating tetany. Choice B, Levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid), is incorrect as it is a thyroid hormone replacement and does not address low calcium levels. Choice D, Propranolol (Inderal), is incorrect as it is a beta-blocker used for conditions like hypertension and not indicated for tetany after thyroidectomy.

5. Which action should the school nurse take first when conducting a screening for scoliosis?

• A. Compare dorsal trunk measurements
• B. Have the individual extend arms over the head for visualization
• C. Inspect for symmetrical shoulder height
• D. Observe weight-bearing on each leg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inspecting for symmetrical shoulder height is a crucial initial step in screening for scoliosis. Asymmetry in shoulder height can indicate the presence of spinal curvature, which is a key indicator of scoliosis. This assessment is prioritized as it provides a visual clue to potential spinal abnormalities. Choices A, B, and D are not the first steps in scoliosis screening. Choice A involves a more detailed measurement that is not the primary visual indicator for scoliosis; choice B is not a primary indicator of scoliosis but can be used for further examination, and choice D is not directly related to identifying spinal curvature.

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