Nursing Elites

1. When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions
• B. Schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment
• C. Obtain a blood cortisol level before discharge
• D. Encourage the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.

2. Following the evacuation of a subdural hematoma, an older adult develops an infection. The client is transferred to the neuro intensive care unit with a temperature of 101.8 F (39.3 C) axillary, pulse of 180 beats/minute, and a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. What is the priority intervention to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Confusion
• B. Check neuro vital signs every 4 hours.
• C. Maintain intravenous access.
• D. Keep the suture line clean and dry.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority intervention for the client in this scenario is to maintain intravenous (IV) access. Given the client's condition with infection, elevated temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, it is crucial to ensure IV access for administering antibiotics, fluids, and other medications promptly. This can help manage the infection, stabilize hemodynamics, and support the client's hydration and medication needs. Checking neuro vital signs, although important, is secondary to addressing the immediate need for IV access. Keeping the suture line clean and dry is important for wound care but not the priority when dealing with a systemic infection and hemodynamic instability.

3. A school nurse is called to the soccer field because a child has a nosebleed (epistaxis). In what position should the nurse place the child?

• A. Sitting up and leaning forward
• B. Reclining with head elevated
• C. Sitting up with head tilted back
• D. Lying flat on the back

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct position for a child with a nosebleed (epistaxis) is sitting up and leaning forward. This position helps prevent blood from flowing into the throat and causing choking. Choice B, reclining with the head elevated, and choice D, lying flat on the back, are incorrect as they can cause blood to flow backward into the throat. Choice C, sitting up with the head tilted back, is also incorrect as it can lead to blood flowing down the back of the throat and potentially into the airway.

4. The nurse is planning care for a family whose children did not receive childhood immunizations. After one of the children contracted mumps, the father is diagnosed with orchitis. Which intervention should be included in the father's plan of care?

• A. Use of bedrest with scrotal support
• B. Administration of antibiotics for 10 days
• C. Applying heat to promote the healing process
• D. Using an ice pack to reduce scrotal pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For orchitis, the recommended intervention is bedrest with scrotal support. This helps reduce swelling and discomfort in the scrotum. Antibiotics are generally not required for viral orchitis, so administering antibiotics for 10 days (Choice B) is not indicated. Applying heat (Choice C) may worsen swelling and should be avoided. Using an ice pack (Choice D) is not the preferred method for managing orchitis; it may not be as effective as providing support and rest for the scrotum.

5. A client who is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) receives a prescription for metformin (Glucophage) 500 mg PO twice daily. What information should the nurse include in this client’s teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Take an additional dose for signs of hyperglycemia
• B. Recognize signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.
• C. Report persistent polyuria to the healthcare provider.
• D. Use sliding scale insulin for finger stick glucose elevation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Metformin does not require additional doses for hyperglycemia, and sliding scale insulin is not typically used with metformin. It is important for the client to recognize signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, report persistent polyuria to the healthcare provider, and take the medication with meals. Teaching the client to use sliding scale insulin for finger stick glucose elevation is not appropriate in this case because metformin is the prescribed medication, and its mechanism of action differs from insulin therapy. The client should be educated on the importance of taking metformin with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and to report any persistent polyuria, which could indicate poor blood sugar control.

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