Nursing Elites

1. An angry client screams at the emergency department triage nurse, “I’ve been waiting here for two hours! You and the staff are incompetent”. What is the best response for the nurse to make?

• A. The emergency department is very busy at this time.
• B. I’ll let you see the doctor next because you’ve waited so long.
• C. I’m doing the best I can for the sickest clients first.
• D. I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: The best response for the nurse is to choose option D, 'I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.' This response demonstrates empathy and validates the client's feelings, helping to defuse the situation. Choice A is not the best response as it does not directly address the client's emotions or concerns. Choice B is inappropriate as it gives preferential treatment based on the client's behavior. Choice C, while true, does not acknowledge the client's frustration or offer empathy.

2. The nurse is teaching a male adolescent recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) about self-injecting insulin. Which approach is best for the nurse to use to evaluate the effectiveness of the teaching?

• A. Observe him demonstrating the self-injection technique to another diabetic adolescent.
• B. Ask the adolescent to describe his comfort level with injecting himself with insulin.
• C. Review his glycosylated hemoglobin level 3 months after the teaching session.
• D. Have the adolescent list the steps for safe insulin administration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reviewing the glycosylated hemoglobin level after a few months is the best approach to evaluate the effectiveness of teaching self-injection. This measurement provides an objective indicator of the adolescent's glucose control over time, reflecting the impact of insulin self-administration education. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the long-term impact of the teaching on the adolescent's diabetes management.

3. In developing a plan of care for a client admitted to a mental health unit after attempting suicide by taking a handful of medications, which goal has the highest priority?

• A. Signs a no-self-harm contract
• B. Sleep for at least 6 hours nightly
• C. Attends group therapy every day
• D. Verbalizes a positive self-image

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Signs a no-self-harm contract. Ensuring the client’s immediate safety by having them commit to not engaging in self-harm is the highest priority after a suicide attempt. This measure aims to prevent further harm to the client. While sleep, group therapy, and self-image are important aspects of care, they are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the immediate aftermath of a suicide attempt. Prioritizing the establishment of a no-self-harm contract creates a foundation for addressing other therapeutic goals in the client's care plan.

4. The nurse is calculating the one-minute Apgar score for a newborn male infant and determines that his heart rate is 150 beats/minute, he has a vigorous cry, his muscle tone is good with total flexion, he has quick reflex irritability, and his color is dusky and cyanotic. What Apgar score should the nurse assign to the infant?

• A. 8
• B. 9
• C. 6
• D. 7

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8. The Apgar score is calculated based on five parameters: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the infant has a good heart rate, vigorous cry, good muscle tone, and quick reflex irritability, which would total to 8. The only factor affecting the score is the cyanotic color, which could indicate potential respiratory or circulatory issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the overall assessment provided in the scenario.

5. In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client’s B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Measure the client’s oxygen saturation before taking further action
• B. Administer a PRN dose of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
• C. Administer the dose of furosemide as scheduled
• D. Hold the dose of furosemide until contacting the healthcare provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated BNP levels in a client with heart failure may indicate worsening heart failure. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take when encountering an elevated BNP before administering furosemide is to hold the dose and contact the healthcare provider for further guidance. This precaution is necessary to ensure the client's safety and prevent potential complications. Options A and B are incorrect as they do not address the issue of the elevated BNP, which is crucial in this situation. Option C is also incorrect because administering furosemide without consulting the healthcare provider could be harmful if the client's condition is deteriorating.

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