HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice
1. The client has silvery scaling plaques bilaterally on elbows, forearms, and palms. When scratched, the skin bleeds over these plaques. What is most important to include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Interventions to decrease emotional stress
- B. Precautions about avoiding sunlight
- C. Strategies to increase omega-3 fatty acids in the diet
- D. Instruct about applying a corticosteroid cream
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important aspect to include in this client's plan of care is interventions to decrease emotional stress. Psoriasis, characterized by silvery scaling plaques on the skin, can be exacerbated by emotional stress. Managing stress is crucial in controlling the condition. Precautions about avoiding sunlight are important in psoriasis management, but emotional stress has a more significant impact. While omega-3 fatty acids may provide some benefits, stress management should take priority. Applying a corticosteroid cream may help with symptoms, but addressing emotional stress is crucial for long-term management of psoriasis.
2. A client receives a prescription for acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) 1.4 grams per nasogastric tube q4 hours. Acetylcysteine is available as a 10% solution (10 grams/100ml). How many ml of the 10% solution should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 7
- B. 10
- C. 14
- D. 1.4 grams of acetylcysteine is equivalent to 14 ml of a 10% solution.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To determine the amount of the 10% acetylcysteine solution to administer, convert the 1.4 grams to milligrams (1.4 grams = 1400 mg). Then, as the 10% solution contains 10 grams (10,000 mg) per 100 ml, it means there are 1000 mg of acetylcysteine in every 10 ml of the solution (10,000 mg / 100 ml = 100 mg/ml). Therefore, to administer 1400 mg (1.4 grams) of acetylcysteine, the nurse should give 14 ml of the 10% solution. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not accurately convert the amount of acetylcysteine to the corresponding volume of the 10% solution.
3. An adult male was diagnosed with stage IV lung cancer three weeks ago. His wife approaches the nurse and asks how she will know that her husband's death is imminent because their two adult children want to be there when he dies. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Explain that the client will start to lose consciousness and his body systems will slow down
- B. Reassure the spouse that the healthcare provider will let her know when to call the children
- C. Offer to discuss the client’s health status with each of the adult children
- D. Gather information on how long it will take for the children to arrive
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to explain that the client will start to lose consciousness and his body systems will slow down. Providing information on the signs of impending death helps the family prepare emotionally and allows them to be present at the appropriate time. Choice B is incorrect because it does not empower the family with the knowledge they seek. Choice C is incorrect as discussing the client’s health status individually with the adult children may not address the wife's immediate concern. Choice D is incorrect as the priority should be on preparing the family for the signs of imminent death rather than focusing on logistical details.
4. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving baclofen 15 mg PO three times daily. The drug is available in 10 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer in a 24-hour period? (Enter a numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)
- A. 4.5
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the total dose of baclofen needed in a 24-hour period, multiply 15 mg by 3 doses, which equals 45 mg. Since the tablets are available in 10 mg strength, divide the total dose needed (45 mg) by the strength of each tablet (10 mg), which equals 4.5 tablets. Rounding off to the nearest tenth, the nurse should administer 4.5 tablets of 10 mg baclofen per day. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are irrelevant as they are not provided.
5. A client admitted to the intensive care unit with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) has developed osmotic demyelination. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Patch one eye.
- B. Reorient often.
- C. Range of motion.
- D. Evaluate swallow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Frequent reorientation is crucial for clients with neurological impairments from osmotic demyelination to prevent confusion and assist with orientation. It helps maintain a proper sense of time, place, and person, reducing disorientation. Patching one eye (Choice A) is not a priority intervention for osmotic demyelination and does not address the immediate need for reorientation. Range of motion exercises (Choice C) may be important for overall care, but reorientation takes precedence due to its impact on neurological functioning. Evaluating swallow (Choice D) is not the primary intervention needed for osmotic demyelination; it is essential but not the first priority.
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