Nursing Elites

1. To differentiate adventitious lung sounds associated with heart failure from those associated with bacterial pneumonia, what information should the nurse review?

• A. Sputum culture findings
• B. Oxygen saturation level
• C. Amount of coughing
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sputum culture findings. Reviewing sputum culture findings can provide valuable information to differentiate between bacterial pneumonia and heart failure, as the type of bacteria present in the sputum can help identify the specific infection. Oxygen saturation level (Choice B) is important for assessing oxygenation status but does not directly help in distinguishing between the two conditions based on lung sounds. The amount of coughing (Choice C) and respiratory rate (Choice D) may offer some clinical insights but are not as specific or diagnostic as sputum culture findings when differentiating between heart failure and bacterial pneumonia.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes potassium chloride 25 mEq in 500 ml D5W to infuse over 6 hours. The available 20 ml vial of potassium chloride is labeled '10 mEq/5 ml.' How many ml of potassium chloride should the nurse add to the IV fluid?

• A. 12.5
• B. 5
• C. 10
• D. 20

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prepare 25 mEq of potassium chloride for the infusion, the nurse should add 5 ml of the 10 mEq/5 ml solution. This concentration provides the required amount of potassium chloride without exceeding the needed volume. Choice A would result in 12.5 mEq, which exceeds the prescribed amount. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the vial concentration.

3. The nurse is completing a neurological assessment on a client with a closed head injury. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score was 13 on admission. It is now assessed at 6. What is the priority nursing intervention based on the client’s current GCS?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the GCS score
• B. Prepare the family for the client’s imminent death
• C. Monitor the client q1 hour for changes in the GCS score
• D. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A significant drop in GCS indicates a severe decline in neurological status, necessitating immediate communication with the healthcare provider. Notifying the healthcare provider allows for prompt evaluation and intervention to address the worsening condition. Choice B is incorrect because preparing the family for imminent death is premature and not supported by the information provided. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of monitoring should be increased to every 15 minutes rather than every hour due to the significant drop in GCS. Choice D is incorrect because initiating CPR is not indicated based solely on a decreased GCS score.

4. A client with a severe prostatic infection that caused a blocked urethra is 3 days post-surgical urinary diversion. The healthcare provider directs the nurse to remove the suprapubic catheter to allow the client to void normally. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Cleanse the site around the catheter
• B. Use a 20 ml syringe to deflate balloon
• C. Clamp catheter until the client voids naturally
• D. Empty urine from the urinary drainage bag

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a 20 ml syringe to deflate the balloon first when removing a suprapubic catheter. This step is essential to ensure the safe removal of the catheter without causing any harm or discomfort to the client. Deflating the balloon allows for the catheter to be easily removed. Option A, cleansing the site around the catheter, is not the initial step in this process and can be done after catheter removal. Option C, clamping the catheter until the client voids naturally, is incorrect as it can lead to complications like urinary retention. Option D, emptying urine from the urinary drainage bag, is not the first step in removing the suprapubic catheter and does not address the need to deflate the balloon for safe removal.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy. Which action should the nurse perform when suctioning the tracheostomy tube?

• A. Increase wall suction while removing the suction catheter
• B. Instill 10 ml of sterile saline into the tracheostomy tube before applying continuous suction
• C. Suction the client’s oropharynx after tracheal suctioning
• D. Insert the suction catheter into the trachea, and apply intermittent suction with removal of the catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When suctioning a tracheostomy tube, it is essential to insert the suction catheter into the trachea and apply intermittent suction with removal of the catheter. This technique helps prevent damage to the trachea and reduces discomfort for the client. Choice A is incorrect because increasing wall suction with the removal of the suction catheter can cause trauma to the tracheal mucosa. Choice B is incorrect because instilling saline into the tracheostomy tube before suctioning is not recommended as it can lead to complications. Choice C is incorrect as oropharyngeal suctioning should be done before tracheal suctioning to prevent the risk of aspiration.

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