HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice
1. To differentiate adventitious lung sounds associated with heart failure from those associated with bacterial pneumonia, what information should the nurse review?
- A. Sputum culture findings
- B. Oxygen saturation level
- C. Amount of coughing
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sputum culture findings. Reviewing sputum culture findings can provide valuable information to differentiate between bacterial pneumonia and heart failure, as the type of bacteria present in the sputum can help identify the specific infection. Oxygen saturation level (Choice B) is important for assessing oxygenation status but does not directly help in distinguishing between the two conditions based on lung sounds. The amount of coughing (Choice C) and respiratory rate (Choice D) may offer some clinical insights but are not as specific or diagnostic as sputum culture findings when differentiating between heart failure and bacterial pneumonia.
2. After learning that she has terminal pancreatic cancer, a female client becomes very angry and says to the nurse, 'God has abandoned me. What did I do to deserve this?' Based on this response, the nurse decides to include which nursing problem in the client’s plan of care?
- A. Ineffective coping
- B. Spiritual distress
- C. Acute pain
- D. Complicated grieving
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client’s expression of feeling abandoned by God indicates spiritual distress, which is a significant issue that needs to be addressed in the plan of care. The individual is questioning their faith and seeking answers in a higher power, which aligns with spiritual distress. Choices A, C, and D are not as directly related to the client's current emotional and spiritual struggle. Ineffective coping may be a consequence of spiritual distress, acute pain is not the primary concern in this scenario, and complicated grieving is premature as the client is still processing the diagnosis and seeking meaning.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left forearm. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the fistula is patent?
- A. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand
- B. The left radial pulse is 2+ bounding
- C. Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm
- D. Assessment of a bruit on the left forearm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm is the correct observation indicating that the AV fistula is patent. A thrill is a palpable vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the fistula, indicating the presence of blood flow. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the patency of the fistula. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand may indicate venous hypertension; a bounding radial pulse could suggest increased blood flow through an artery, but it does not confirm fistula patency; assessment of a bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, but it does not confirm patency.
4. A young adult client was admitted 36 hours ago for a head injury that occurred as a result of a motorcycle accident. In the last 4 hours, the client’s urine output has increased to over 200 ml/hour. Before reporting the finding to the healthcare provider, which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Obtain capillary blood samples for glucose every 2 hours
- B. Measure oral secretions suctioned during the last 4 hours
- C. Evaluate the urine osmolality and serum osmolality values
- D. Obtain blood pressure and assess for dependent edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the urine osmolality and serum osmolality values. The increased urine output following a head injury could indicate diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive urination and extreme thirst. Evaluating osmolality is crucial for diagnosing diabetes insipidus. Choice A is incorrect because obtaining capillary blood samples for glucose every 2 hours is not the priority in this situation. Choice B is irrelevant to the client's current symptom of increased urine output. Choice D is also not the most appropriate intervention as the focus should be on assessing for a potential endocrine issue related to the increased urine output.
5. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving baclofen 15 mg PO three times daily. The drug is available in 10 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer in a 24-hour period? (Enter a numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)
- A. 4.5
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the total dose of baclofen needed in a 24-hour period, multiply 15 mg by 3 doses, which equals 45 mg. Since the tablets are available in 10 mg strength, divide the total dose needed (45 mg) by the strength of each tablet (10 mg), which equals 4.5 tablets. Rounding off to the nearest tenth, the nurse should administer 4.5 tablets of 10 mg baclofen per day. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are irrelevant as they are not provided.
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