Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with hepatitis A (HAV) and dehydration. Subjective symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, and malaise. What additional assessment should the nurse expect to find during the preicteric phase?

• A. RUQ abdominal pain
• B. Clay-colored stools
• C. Icteric sclera
• D. Pruritus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the preicteric phase of hepatitis A, the nurse should expect to find RUQ (right upper quadrant) abdominal pain. This pain is common in the early phase of hepatitis A and is associated with liver inflammation. Clay-colored stools (Choice B) are typically seen in the icteric phase when there is a lack of bile flow. Icteric sclera (Choice C) refers to yellowing of the eyes, which is a characteristic of the icteric phase. Pruritus (Choice D), which is itching of the skin, is also more commonly associated with the icteric phase when bile salts accumulate in the skin.

2. The nurse is assessing a first-day postpartum client. Which finding is most indicative of a postpartum infection?

• A. Oral temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C)
• B. Blood pressure of 122/74 mmHg
• C. Moderate amount of foul-smelling lochia
• D. White blood count of 19,000/mm³ (19x10^9/L SI units)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A foul-smelling lochia is indicative of a postpartum infection, such as endometritis. Foul-smelling lochia suggests the presence of infection due to the breakdown of tissue by bacteria, leading to the malodor. An oral temperature elevation and an elevated white blood cell count are nonspecific and can be present in various conditions other than postpartum infections, making them less indicative. A blood pressure within normal limits is not typically associated with postpartum infections.

3. A newly hired unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is assigned to a home healthcare team along with two experienced UAPs. Which intervention should the home health nurse implement to ensure adequate care for all clients?

• A. Ask the most experienced UAP on the team to partner with the newly hired UAP.
• B. Evaluate the newly hired UAP’s level of competency by observing the UAP deliver care.
• C. Review the UAP’s skills checklist and experience with the person who hired the UAP.
• D. Assign the newly hired UAP to clients who require the least complex level of care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating the newly hired UAP’s competency by observing them deliver care is the most effective intervention to ensure they can provide safe and effective care. This approach directly assesses the UAP's actual performance and allows for immediate feedback. Option A, asking the most experienced UAP to partner with the newly hired one, may not guarantee that the new UAP is competent. Option C, reviewing the UAP’s skills checklist and experience with the hiring person, does not provide a direct assessment of the UAP's current abilities. Option D, assigning the new UAP to less complex cases, does not address the need to evaluate their competency directly.

4. An adolescent male client is admitted to the hospital. Based on Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, which nursing intervention best assists this adolescent’s adjustment to his hospital stay?

• A. Invite him to participate in the evening group activity
• B. Schedule frequent private phone calls to his parents
• C. Provide access to a variety of video games in his room
• D. Encourage him to learn his way around the hospital

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inviting the adolescent to participate in group activities aligns with Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, specifically the stage of developing social relationships. By engaging in group activities, the adolescent can interact with peers, fostering social skills and aiding in adjustment to the hospital environment. Choice B is incorrect as excessive reliance on phone calls to parents may hinder the adolescent's autonomy and independence, which are crucial aspects of Erikson's theory for this age group. Choice C, providing access to video games, while potentially offering entertainment, does not directly address the need for social interaction and relationship-building. Choice D, encouraging the adolescent to learn his way around the hospital, is important for familiarity but may not directly address the need for social interaction and adjustment in the hospital setting.

5. What assessment data should lead the nurse to suspect that a client has progressed from HIV infection to AIDS?

• A. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes
• B. Presence of low-grade fever and sore throat
• C. Recent history of recurrent pneumonia
• D. CD4 blood cell count of 300

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Recent history of recurrent pneumonia.' Recurrent pneumonia is a hallmark indicator of progression to AIDS in clients with HIV infection. It signifies advanced immunosuppression when the body is unable to fight off infections effectively. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes (Choice A) are more indicative of local infections or inflammation rather than AIDS progression. The presence of a low-grade fever and sore throat (Choice B) may be common in various infections and are not specific to AIDS progression. While a CD4 blood cell count of 300 (Choice D) is below the normal range and indicates immunosuppression, it alone may not be sufficient to suspect progression to AIDS without other supporting indicators like opportunistic infections such as recurrent pneumonia.

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