HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:
- A. Will you briefly summarize your point because others need time as well?
- B. Your behavior is obnoxious and drains the group.
- C. I am so frustrated with your behavior.
- D. To ignore the behavior and allow him to vent
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.
2. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?
- A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
- B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
- C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
- D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
3. A client is post-operative day one following an open cholecystectomy. The nurse notices the client's drainage from the T-tube is dark green. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Document the finding as normal.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Decrease the suction on the T-tube.
- D. Flush the T-tube with saline to ensure patency.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Dark green drainage from a T-tube after a cholecystectomy is bile, which is an expected finding. Bile is normally dark green in color. It is important for the nurse to recognize this as a normal post-operative occurrence and document the finding. There is no need to notify the healthcare provider immediately as this finding is an anticipated part of the client's recovery. Decreasing the suction on the T-tube or flushing it with saline is unnecessary and may not be indicated based on the color of the drainage. Therefore, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to document the dark green drainage as a normal finding.
4. A client who had an abdominal hysterectomy is experiencing minimal urine output despite adequate fluid intake. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. The client's bladder for distension.
- B. The IV catheter insertion site.
- C. The patency of the urinary catheter.
- D. The client's vital signs.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing the patency of the urinary catheter is crucial in this situation. A blocked catheter could be a common cause of decreased urine output following surgery. While checking the IV catheter insertion site (Choice B) is important, it is not the priority in this case. Examining the client's bladder for distension (Choice A) is relevant, but assessing the patency of the catheter takes precedence in resolving the issue of decreased urine output. Monitoring vital signs (Choice D) is a routine nursing task but not the priority when dealing with decreased urine output post-surgery.
5. The UAP reports to the PN that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. Which action is best for the PN to take?
- A. Explain the importance of good hygiene to the client
- B. Ask family members to encourage the client to bathe
- C. Reschedule the bath for the following day
- D. Ask the client why the bath was refused
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best action for the PN to take when a client refuses to bathe is to ask the client why the bath was refused. Understanding the client's reasons for refusing a bath is crucial as it helps to address any underlying issues, such as fear, discomfort, or physical limitations. By communicating directly with the client, the PN can provide appropriate care tailored to the client's needs. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the root cause of the refusal and may not effectively resolve the issue.
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