HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:
- A. Will you briefly summarize your point because others need time as well?
- B. Your behavior is obnoxious and drains the group.
- C. I am so frustrated with your behavior.
- D. To ignore the behavior and allow him to vent
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.
2. Before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity, which lab value is most important for the nurse to review?
- A. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
- B. Serum Calcium
- C. Serum Creatinine
- D. WBC
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum Creatinine. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. Reviewing this value is crucial as it helps assess the client's risk for nephrotoxicity before administering the antibiotic. Elevated serum creatinine levels can indicate impaired kidney function, which would increase the risk of nephrotoxicity. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly related to kidney function and nephrotoxicity. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess for anemia, serum calcium levels monitor calcium balance, and WBC count evaluates for infections. While these values are important for overall patient assessment, they are not as specific to assessing nephrotoxicity risk as serum creatinine.
3. Which of the following is the best method for confirming nasogastric tube placement?
- A. Auscultating over the stomach while injecting air
- B. Checking the pH of the aspirate
- C. Observing the patient’s response during feeding
- D. Measuring the external length of the tube
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Checking the pH of the aspirate is the most reliable method to confirm nasogastric tube placement as it provides direct evidence of the tube's location in the stomach. When the pH is acidic (pH < 5), it indicates that the tube is correctly placed in the stomach. Auscultating over the stomach while injecting air may not always be accurate, as the sound can be misleading due to various factors. Observing the patient’s response during feeding is not a definitive method for confirming tube placement, as it can be influenced by other factors. Measuring the external length of the tube does not ensure correct placement within the GI tract and can be affected by external factors like patient anatomy.
4. The UAP is caring for a male resident of a long-term care facility who has an external urinary catheter. Which finding should the PN instruct the UAP to report immediately?
- A. Swollen and discolored penile shaft
- B. Prepuce extends over the head of the penis
- C. Leaking urine around the top of the catheter
- D. Moist and excoriated perineal skin folds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Swollen and discolored penile shaft. Swelling and discoloration of the penile shaft may indicate an infection or other complications requiring immediate attention. Prompt reporting allows for timely intervention to prevent further harm to the client. Choice B is incorrect because the prepuce extending over the head of the penis is not an urgent issue. Choice C, leaking urine around the catheter, may require intervention but is not as urgent as the swelling and discoloration described in choice A. Choice D, moist and excoriated perineal skin folds, also needs attention but is not as concerning as the potential complications indicated by the findings in choice A.
5. While conducting a mental status examination of a newly admitted male client, the PN notes that his head is lowered, and he shows no emotion or expression when speaking. Based on these observations, what documentation should the PN include?
- A. Impaired verbalization
- B. Depressed mood
- C. Flat affect
- D. Diminished LOC
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Flat affect.' Flat affect refers to a lack of emotional expression, which the PN observed in the client. This observation is significant as it can provide valuable information for the client's mental health assessment and subsequent care planning. Choice A, 'Impaired verbalization,' does not capture the lack of emotional expression seen in the client. Choice B, 'Depressed mood,' may not accurately reflect the observed behavior of the client. Choice D, 'Diminished LOC,' pertains to the level of consciousness, which was not indicated as being a concern in the scenario provided.
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