HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:
- A. Will you briefly summarize your point because others need time as well?
- B. Your behavior is obnoxious and drains the group.
- C. I am so frustrated with your behavior.
- D. To ignore the behavior and allow him to vent
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.
2. Which of the following is a primary intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?
- A. Administering insulin
- B. Providing a complex carbohydrate meal
- C. Giving 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, like glucose tablets
- D. Encouraging the patient to exercise
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Giving 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets, is the primary intervention for hypoglycemia. This rapid-acting carbohydrate helps quickly raise blood sugar levels, providing immediate relief to the patient. Administering insulin (Choice A) would further lower blood sugar levels, exacerbating the hypoglycemia. Providing a complex carbohydrate meal (Choice B) would not act quickly enough to address the immediate low blood sugar issue. Encouraging the patient to exercise (Choice D) is inappropriate during hypoglycemia as it can further deplete glucose levels.
3. While conducting a mental status examination of a newly admitted male client, the PN notes that his head is lowered, and he shows no emotion or expression when speaking. Based on these observations, what documentation should the PN include?
- A. Impaired verbalization
- B. Depressed mood
- C. Flat affect
- D. Diminished LOC
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Flat affect.' Flat affect refers to a lack of emotional expression, which the PN observed in the client. This observation is significant as it can provide valuable information for the client's mental health assessment and subsequent care planning. Choice A, 'Impaired verbalization,' does not capture the lack of emotional expression seen in the client. Choice B, 'Depressed mood,' may not accurately reflect the observed behavior of the client. Choice D, 'Diminished LOC,' pertains to the level of consciousness, which was not indicated as being a concern in the scenario provided.
4. A male client who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia is withdrawn, isolates himself in the day room, and answers questions with one or two-word responses. This morning, the practical nurse observes that he is diaphoretic and is pacing in the hall. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?
- A. Persuade the client to lie down
- B. Provide a drink high in electrolytes
- C. Observe the client during the shift
- D. Measure appropriate vital signs
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Measuring vital signs is crucial in this situation as it helps to determine if the client is experiencing a physical health issue or if the symptoms are related to a mental health crisis, such as anxiety or agitation. The presence of diaphoresis and pacing may indicate physiological changes requiring immediate attention. Providing a drink high in electrolytes or persuading the client to lie down may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Simply observing the client during the shift without taking necessary actions to assess his physiological status may delay appropriate intervention.
5. The PN observes a UAP preparing to exit a client's room. The UAP's hands appear visibly soiled as the UAP uses a hand rub for 19 seconds to cleanse the hands. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Confirm that the UAP completed hand hygiene correctly
- B. Instruct the UAP to wash the hands for one minute
- C. Ask the UAP why the hands were so obviously soiled
- D. Advise the UAP to use the hand rub for 30 seconds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When hands are visibly soiled, they should be washed with soap and water for at least 20 seconds. However, when using hand rub, it should be applied for at least 30 seconds to be effective. In this scenario, the UAP's hands were visibly soiled, indicating the need for thorough cleaning. Advising the UAP to use the hand rub for 30 seconds is essential to ensure proper hand hygiene and reduce the risk of spreading infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because confirming completion of hand hygiene, instructing to wash for one minute, or asking why the hands were soiled do not address the immediate need for proper hand hygiene in the given situation.
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